APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –10/10/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (10-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
APSC CCE Courses
APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 10/10/2026)
Topic 1: Diyung Riverbed Stone Mining Controversy
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the geographical and ecological context of the Diyung River:
- It originates in the Borail Hills and flows northward to join the Kopili River.
- Dima Hasao district, through which it flows, is predominantly a floodplain region with no significant hill ranges.
- Excessive riverbed mining in such rivers can alter channel morphology and deplete connected groundwater aquifers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Dima Hasao is a major hill district of Assam (formerly North Cachar Hills), not a floodplain.
Q2. With reference to the regulation of minerals in India under the MMDR Act, 1957, consider the following statements:
- Sand, gravel, and building stones are classified as minor minerals.
- The power to frame rules regarding the extraction and concession of minor minerals rests entirely with the Central Government.
- The National Green Tribunal (NGT) holds statutory jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes arising out of the environmental clearance granted to such mining projects.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers State Governments (not the Central Government) to make rules concerning concessions for minor minerals.
Q3. Which of the following potential ecological consequences are directly associated with unscientific and excessive riverbed stone and sand mining?
- Disturbance of benthic (bottom-dwelling) aquatic habitats.
- Improvement in natural groundwater recharge rates.
- Instability of riverbanks leading to increased erosion risks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (c) Explanation: Unscientific mining disrupts aquatic habitats and weakens bank stability by altering sediment transport (Statements 1 and 3 are correct). It depletes, rather than improves, groundwater recharge by lowering the riverbed (Statement 2 is incorrect).
Q4. Statement-I: All riverbed minor mineral mining projects are legally exempt from requiring a prior Environmental Clearance (EC) if the lease area is small.
Statement-II: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change introduced the Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines to mandate scientific extraction and environmental safeguards.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (d) Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect because there is no blanket exemption for minor mineral mining from Environmental Clearance based merely on a small lease area (judicial orders and the EIA notification mandate clearances). Statement-II is factually correct.
Topic 2: India Post Connects Branch Post Offices Through Drones
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory framework for drones in India:
- The Drone Rules, 2021 have abolished the requirement of prior permission for operating civil drones in designated ‘Green Zones’.
- ‘Digital Sky’ is a single-window online platform developed to facilitate airspace clearance and regulatory compliance for drones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Drone Rules 2021 liberalized operations by removing the need for prior approval in Green Zones, and Digital Sky is the official digital ecosystem for managing civil aviation drone regulations.
Q6. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is frequently highlighted as a tool for financial inclusion via the postal network. Which of the following statements about IPPB is/are correct?
- It is a 100% government-owned entity under the Ministry of Finance.
- It can accept demand deposits but is not permitted to issue credit cards or advance loans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statement 2 is correct as Payments Banks in India cannot issue credit cards or loans. Statement 1 is incorrect because IPPB falls under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Finance.
Q7. In the context of implementing drone-based logistics in regions like Assam and Himachal Pradesh, which of the following represent the most severe operational limitations?
- Strict payload carrying capacities.
- Battery endurance in mountainous terrain.
- High sensitivity to adverse meteorological conditions like fog and storms.
- Total lack of satellite navigation coverage in Northeast India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
- (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
- (c) 1 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (a) Explanation: Payload, battery life, and weather are the primary physical and logistical limitations for drones. Statement 4 is incorrect; India has robust satellite navigation coverage (GPS and NavIC) over the Northeast.
Q8. The use of drones for postal connectivity in Assam is considered highly significant primarily because:
- (a) It replaces the need for local postmen, saving operational salary costs entirely.
- (b) It bypasses circuitous road networks, seasonal floods, and riverine (char) isolations that delay conventional transport.
- (c) Drones in Assam are exclusively permitted to carry high-value bank cash, bypassing local security risks.
- (d) Assam lacks any functional road infrastructure, making air transport the only available option.
Answer: (b) Explanation: Drones complement existing networks by overcoming Assam’s specific geographical challenges like seasonal floods and difficult riverine terrains, vastly reducing travel time.
Topic 3: Arrest of Radical Elements and Internal Security
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:
- Under the Act, the Central Government has the power to designate organizations as well as individuals as terrorists.
- The Act applies only to Indian citizens committing offences within the territorial boundaries of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (individuals can be designated as terrorists following the 2019 amendment). Statement 2 is incorrect; UAPA has extraterritorial application and applies to foreign nationals as well if their actions threaten India’s security.
Q10. Statement-I: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) has the authority to take suo motu cognizance of terror activities in any state without requiring special permission from the State Government.
Statement-II: Public order and police are subjects placed in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, allowing overlapping jurisdiction.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement-I is correct; the NIA Act 2008 empowers the agency to investigate scheduled offences across India without state permission. Statement-II is incorrect; “Public Order” and “Police” are strictly State List subjects, not Concurrent.
Q11. In internal security terminology, which of the following best describes the technical difference between “Radicalisation” and “Violent Extremism”?
- (a) Radicalisation only occurs through digital platforms, whereas violent extremism relies on physical recruitment.
- (b) Radicalisation is the psychological process of adopting extreme beliefs, while violent extremism involves the actual use or direct support of violence to achieve those objectives.
- (c) Radicalisation is considered a cognizable criminal offence under the BNS, while violent extremism is not.
- (d) There is no distinction; both terms denote active armed rebellion against the state.
Answer: (b) Explanation: Radicalisation is a cognitive or psychological process (which is not intrinsically illegal until it translates into action). Violent extremism is the behavioural manifestation where violence is used or advocated.
Q12. The Imam Mahmuder Kafila (IMK) was recently in the news due to coordinated operations by the NIA. Which proscribed organization is it reportedly linked to?
- (a) Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT)
- (b) Jama’atul Mujahideen Bangladesh (JMB)
- (c) United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA-I)
- (d) Islamic State of Khorasan Province (ISKP)
Answer: (b) Explanation: As per the intelligence and investigation reports, IMK is an extremist network attempting to expand its base and is linked to the banned Jama’atul Mujahideen Bangladesh (JMB).
Topic 4: India at the UNGA Plenary and UN Reforms
Q13. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA):
- It is the only principal organ of the UN where all 193 Member States have equal representation and one vote each.
- Decisions on “important questions”, such as the admission of new members, require a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
- Resolutions passed by the UNGA are generally legally binding on all Member States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because UNGA resolutions are generally deliberative recommendations and are not legally binding (unlike specific UNSC resolutions).
Q14. With reference to amending the United Nations Charter (Article 108), consider the following requirements:
- Adoption by a two-thirds majority vote in the UN General Assembly.
- Ratification by two-thirds of the UN Member States.
- Mandatory ratification by all five permanent members of the Security Council.
Which of the above conditions must be fulfilled to successfully amend the UN Charter?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d) Explanation: According to Article 108 of the UN Charter, an amendment requires a two-thirds majority in the UNGA and ratification by two-thirds of the member states, which absolutely must include the constitutional ratification of all five permanent members (P5).
Q15. The “L.69 Group”, often mentioned in international affairs, is best described as:
- (a) A coalition of least developed countries seeking climate finance compensation.
- (b) A block of developing countries from Africa, Latin America, and Asia advocating for comprehensive reform of the UN Security Council.
- (c) An intergovernmental panel strictly working on reforming the global nuclear non-proliferation treaty.
- (d) A specialized working group under the G20 dealing with sovereign debt restructuring.
Answer: (b) Explanation: The L.69 Group is a pro-reform group of developing countries representing the Global South, firmly advocating for UN Security Council expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories.
Q16. Consider the following pairs of UN Principal Organs and their respective headquarters:
- International Court of Justice (ICJ) — The Hague
- UN Security Council (UNSC) — Geneva
- Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) — New York
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) All three pairs
- (d) None of the pairs
Answer: (b) Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched (ICJ is in The Hague, Netherlands). Pair 3 is correctly matched (ECOSOC is in New York). Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because the UN Security Council is headquartered in New York, not Geneva.
✨ APSC CCE Courses, 2025-26 offered by SuchitraACS
🔔 Join Our WhatsApp Study Group!
For exclusive access to premium quality content, including study materials, current affairs, MCQs, and model answers for APSC CCE and other Assam competitive exams.
Click here to join: SuchitraACS Study WhatsApp Group
📚 Want to know more about SuchitraACS’s most affordable courses?
Click here to know more: SuchitraACS Courses for APSC CCE and Assam Competitive Examinations
