APSC Current Affairs: Assam Tribune Notes with MCQs and Answer Writing (10/10/2026)

For APSC CCE and other Assam competitive exam aspirants, staying consistently updated with reliable current affairs is essential for success. This blog provides a well-researched analysis of the most important topics from The Assam Tribune dated 10 October 2026. Each issue has been carefully selected and explained to support both APSC Prelims and Mains preparation, ensuring alignment with the APSC CCE syllabus and the evolving trends of the examination.

✨ APSC CCE Foundation Course, 2026

Diyung Riverbed Stone Mining Controversy: Environment, Biodiversity and Tribal Livelihoods in Dima Hasao

Syllabus Mapping

  • GS Paper III: Environment, biodiversity, environmental impact assessment and sustainable development.
  • GS Paper V (Assam): Assam’s geography, environment, tribal communities, natural resources and regional development.
  • Why in News: Villagers and gaon buras in Dima Hasao formally objected to proposed riverbed stone extraction in the Diyung River, citing threats to local ecology and livelihoods.

Introduction

The Diyung River controversy underscores the urgent governance challenge of balancing infrastructure-driven mineral extraction with the ecological and livelihood security of Assam’s hill districts.

Prelims Perspective

  • Geographical Location: Diyung River in Dima Hasao district (formerly North Cachar Hills), Assam.
  • River Course: Flows north from the Borail Hills for approximately 240 km, joining the Kopili River at Diyungmukh.
  • Authority Involved: Objections were submitted to the Divisional Forest Officer, Dima Hasao Forest Division (West).
  • MMDR Act, 1957: Section 15 empowers states to frame rules for minor mineral concessions; Section 23C allows states to frame rules to prevent illegal mining and transport.
  • EIA Notification, 2006: Establishes the framework for prior environmental clearances (riverbed stone mining has no blanket exemption).
  • MoEFCC Guidelines: Regulated by the Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines (2016) and Enforcement & Monitoring Guidelines for Sand Mining (2020).
  • Dispute Resolution: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) adjudicates statutory environmental and conservation disputes.
  • Key Concepts: Riverbed mining alters sediment transport (affecting channel stability) and can deplete connected aquifers (groundwater storage).

Mains Perspective

  • Importance:
    • Ecological & Water Security: Scientific extraction limits are essential to prevent riverbank erosion and protect groundwater recharge zones.
    • Socio-Economic Protection: Safeguards the traditional livelihoods of indigenous communities dependent on riverine agriculture, fishing, and safe drinking water.
  • Challenges:
    • Assessment & Enforcement Gaps: Isolated project assessments ignore cumulative ecological damage, compounded by weak monitoring of illegal extraction.
    • Development Pressures: High demand for construction aggregates often overrides complex scientific uncertainties regarding seasonal river behaviour.
  • Government Initiatives:
    • Statutory Regulations: EIA Notification (2006) and the MMDR Act (1957) enforce mandatory clearances and state-level controls over minor minerals.
    • Standardized Frameworks: MoEFCC’s 2016 and 2020 guidelines provide clear protocols for site assessment, sustainable extraction, and strict enforcement.
    • Conservation Programs: Assam’s PMKSY Watershed Development Component aids natural resource management but cannot replace robust mining regulations.
  • Way Forward:
    • Scientific & Cumulative Impact: Mandate comprehensive baseline hydrogeological studies and cumulative impact assessments across the river system prior to approval.
    • Technology & Transparency: Utilize GIS and drone mapping for real-time monitoring, ensure public access to survey reports, and demarcate ecologically sensitive “no-mining zones.”
    • Sustainable Alternatives: Incentivize the use of manufactured sand and recycled construction materials to reduce pressure on natural riverbeds.

Conclusion

Ensuring sustainable mineral development in sensitive regions like Dima Hasao requires anchoring economic progress in strict scientific assessments, transparent legal enforcement, and meaningful community participation.

India Post Connects 27 Branch Post Offices Through Drones in Assam

Syllabus Mapping

  • GS Paper III: Science and Technology, Infrastructure, Inclusive Growth.
  • GS Paper V (Assam): Assam-specific geography, development and governance.
  • Why in News: India Post recently connected 27 branch post offices in Assam via drone delivery to overcome logistical challenges in difficult terrains, as reported by The Assam Tribune.

Introduction

Integrating drone technology into India Post’s network represents a critical leap in overcoming geographical barriers to ensure seamless, last-mile rural logistics and governance in Assam.

Prelims Perspective

  • Recent Coverage: India Post connected 27 branch post offices in Assam using drones.
  • Nodal Authority: Department of Posts under the Ministry of Communications.
  • First Assam Routes: Operations launched from Hajo Sub-Post Office delivering to Dampur and Khetri Hardia Branch Post Offices.
  • First National Route: Mandi HPO to Rehardhar BPO (Himachal Pradesh); a 12-km trip reduced from over 2 hours to just 7 minutes.
  • Wider Network Plan: 150 routes planned overall (40 in Assam and 110 in Himachal Pradesh).
  • IPPB Reach: India Post Payments Bank holds over 47 lakh accounts in Assam with ₹600+ crore in deposits
  • Regulatory Framework: Governed by Drone Rules, 2021 and overseen by the DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation).
  • Digital Ecosystem: Uses the Digital Sky platform for airspace clearance and regulatory compliance.

Mains Perspective

  • Importance:
    • Last-Mile Logistics: Bypasses circuitous routes, seasonal floods, and difficult terrain in hill and riverine districts for predictable delivery.
    • Inclusive Service & Economy: Boosts rural access to postal/banking services (IPPB, Aadhaar, passports) and supports local industries (tea, FMCG, pharma).
    • Disaster Resilience: Serves as a vital alternative transport network for essential supplies when traditional road infrastructure fails.
  • Challenges:
    • Operational Limits: Severely hampered by Northeast India’s adverse weather (heavy rain, fog, storms) and the strict payload/battery limits of drones.
    • High Overheads: Faster delivery incurs steep recurring costs (equipment maintenance, insurance, trained pilots), challenging long-term financial viability.
    • Infrastructural Gaps: Still heavily relies on efficient ground-level sorting, handling, and traditional postal staff for the final physical handover.
  • Government Initiatives:
    • Department of Posts Pilot: Active rollout of drone-based mail transmission in difficult terrains (Himachal Pradesh and Assam).
    • Digital India & IPPB: Synergizing physical drone delivery with digital governance and financial inclusion frameworks.
    • Drone Rules, 2021 & Digital Sky: Providing a streamlined, regulated, and safe environment for commercial civil UAV operations.
  • Way Forward:
    • Feasibility & Integration: Conduct rigorous route-specific feasibility studies (cost vs. benefit) and seamlessly link drone hubs with existing ground logistics.
    • Safety & Compliance: Mandate strict pilot training, secure data tracking, emergency protocols, and reliable maintenance to ensure airspace safety.
    • Disaster Mapping: Pre-identify and map specialized contingency drone routes for emergency relief during seasonal floods and landslides.

Conclusion

Embracing drone logistics transforms India Post from a traditional mail carrier into a modern, resilient delivery network, essential for driving inclusive socio-economic growth in geographically challenging regions.

Radical Elements Trying to Expand Across the Country: Arrest of 12 IMK Members

Syllabus Mapping

  • GS Paper III: Internal Security, Terrorism, Cybersecurity, and Border Management.
  • GS Paper V (Assam): Assam’s security and regional context.
  • Why in News: The Assam Tribune reported the arrest of 12 members of the Imam Mahmuder Kafila (IMK) from lower Assam, raising alarms about the expansion of radical networks in the region.

Introduction

The arrests of IMK operatives highlight the critical need for robust, intelligence-driven interstate coordination to neutralize cross-border radicalization and cyber-enabled extremist networks.

Prelims Perspective

  • Imam Mahmuder Kafila (IMK): An extremist network linked to the proscribed Jama’atul Mujahideen Bangladesh (JMB).
  • September 2026 Operation: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) conducted searches across 16 locations in Assam, West Bengal, and Kerala.
  • Arrest Breakdown: 13 people were arrested in the broader NIA operation (8 in Assam, 4 in West Bengal, 1 in Kerala) and digital devices were seized.
  • NIA Mandate: Investigates scheduled terrorism offences under the NIA Act, 2008.
  • UAPA, 1967: India’s primary anti-terror law; the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) designates terrorist groups (like JMB) under Section 35.
  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS): The substantive criminal law of India, which came into effect on 1 July 2024.
  • Assam Police STF: The Special Task Force responsible for localized, specialized security operations.

Mains Perspective

  • Importance:
    • National & Border Security: Transnational links and cross-border coordination by extremist groups directly threaten internal stability and border integrity.
    • Digital Intelligence: The use of encrypted digital platforms for recruitment makes advanced cybersecurity and lawful digital interception crucial.
  • Challenges:
    • Technical & Jurisdictional Hurdles: Encrypted communications and networks spanning multiple states/countries complicate evidence gathering and agency coordination.
    • Socio-Legal Risks: Exploitation of vulnerable youths through online propaganda creates radicalization loops, while broad enforcement actions risk alienating communities and violating due process.
  • Government Initiatives:
    • Statutory Enforcement: Use of the UAPA and BNS by the NIA and state police to investigate, dismantle, and prosecute unlawful associations.
    • Institutional Framework: The MHA drives counter-terrorism policies, supported by specialized state units (like Assam’s STF) and expanding cyber-forensic labs.
  • Way Forward:
    • Tech & Intelligence Synergy: Upgrade digital forensics infrastructure and mandate seamless, real-time intelligence sharing across state and central agencies.
    • Community & Legal Safeguards: Focus on preventive counter-radicalization programs, promote credible counter-narratives, and ensure all security operations are backed by strong evidence and judicial accountability.

Conclusion

Defeating borderless radical networks requires India to seamlessly merge cutting-edge cyber intelligence and inter-agency cooperation while fiercely protecting the constitutional rights and trust of its citizens.

India at the UNGA Plenary: Revitalisation of the UN General Assembly and Comprehensive Reforms

Syllabus Mapping

  • GS Paper II: International Relations (Important International Institutions, and Global Governance).
  • Why in News: India’s Member of Parliament C. P. Joshi recently addressed the UNGA plenary, demanding that the revitalisation of the General Assembly be integrated into a comprehensive reform of the UN system, including the Security Council.

Introduction

India is championing “reformed multilateralism” to ensure that the United Nations’ central deliberative organs and Security Council accurately reflect the contemporary geopolitical realities of a multipolar world.

Prelims Perspective

  • UN Basics: Established on 24 October 1945; Headquarters in New York City; currently comprises 193 Member States.
  • Official Languages (6): Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, and Spanish.
  • Six Principal Organs: UNGA (deliberative), UNSC (peace & security), ICJ (judicial, based in The Hague), ECOSOC (economic/social), Secretariat (administrative), and Trusteeship Council (suspended in 1994).
  • UNGA Voting: Each member has 1 vote; important questions require a two-thirds majority (present and voting); issues mostly non-binding recommendations.
  • UNSC Composition: 15 members total; 5 Permanent (P5) with veto power (China, France, Russia, UK, US) and 10 Non-permanent elected for two-year terms. Can adopt legally binding decisions.
  • Key UN Charter Articles: Article 18 (UNGA voting), Article 23 (UNSC composition), Article 27 (UNSC voting), Article 108 (Amendments), and Article 109 (Charter review).
  • Amendment Catch: Under Article 108 of the UN Charter, amendments require adoption by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of the Member States of the UN, including all five permanent members (P5) of the Security Council.
  • Groups/Mechanisms: Reform is negotiated via the Intergovernmental Negotiations (IGN); India advocates alongside the L.69 group of developing nations.

Mains Perspective

  • Importance of Reform:
    • Democratic Legitimacy: Realigns the outdated 1945-era power structure with today’s multipolar realities, giving a much-needed voice to the Global South.
    • Operational Effectiveness: Mitigates the institutional paralysis caused by geopolitical rivalries and P5 vetoes during modern global conflicts.
    • Institutional Accountability: Enhances coordination, transparent working methods, and program implementation across all UN organs.
  • Major Challenges:
    • The Veto & Article 108: Any structural reform requires unanimous P5 ratification, creating an inherent roadblock against diluting their own power.
    • Regional Rivalries: Intense competition among neighboring states over who gets permanent representation stalls consensus.
    • Stalled IGN Process: Years of Intergovernmental Negotiations have failed to produce a unified, text-based reform model.
  • India’s Position & Initiatives:
    • Reformed Multilateralism: Demands structural expansion in both permanent and non-permanent UNSC categories, alongside UNGA revitalization.
    • Text-Based Negotiations: Urges an immediate shift from vague statements to concrete, text-based IGN drafts to force measurable progress.
    • Global South Leadership: Actively mobilizes developing nations (e.g., L.69 group) to secure equitable climate, economic, and security representation.
  • Way Forward:
    • Substantive Negotiations: Immediately transition to text-based IGN negotiations to identify actual areas of convergence.
    • Holistic Institutional Overhaul: Pursue simultaneous improvements in UNGA working methods and structural UNSC expansion.
    • Consensus Building: Leverage platforms like the G20 and regional groups to build insurmountable political pressure for fair representation of underrepresented continents like Africa and Latin America.

Conclusion

A revitalised UN system is not just an institutional necessity but a global imperative to ensure effective, legitimate, and equitable governance for complex 21st-century challenges.

APSC MCQs

Topic 1: Diyung Riverbed Stone Mining Controversy

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the geographical and ecological context of the Diyung River:

  1. It originates in the Borail Hills and flows northward to join the Kopili River.
  2. Dima Hasao district, through which it flows, is predominantly a floodplain region with no significant hill ranges.
  3. Excessive riverbed mining in such rivers can alter channel morphology and deplete connected groundwater aquifers.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Dima Hasao is a major hill district of Assam (formerly North Cachar Hills), not a floodplain.

Q2. With reference to the regulation of minerals in India under the MMDR Act, 1957, consider the following statements:

  1. Sand, gravel, and building stones are classified as minor minerals.
  2. The power to frame rules regarding the extraction and concession of minor minerals rests entirely with the Central Government.
  3. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) holds statutory jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes arising out of the environmental clearance granted to such mining projects.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers State Governments (not the Central Government) to make rules concerning concessions for minor minerals.

Q3. Which of the following potential ecological consequences are directly associated with unscientific and excessive riverbed stone and sand mining?

  1. Disturbance of benthic (bottom-dwelling) aquatic habitats.
  2. Improvement in natural groundwater recharge rates.
  3. Instability of riverbanks leading to increased erosion risks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: Unscientific mining disrupts aquatic habitats and weakens bank stability by altering sediment transport (Statements 1 and 3 are correct). It depletes, rather than improves, groundwater recharge by lowering the riverbed (Statement 2 is incorrect).

Q4. Statement-I: All riverbed minor mineral mining projects are legally exempt from requiring a prior Environmental Clearance (EC) if the lease area is small.

Statement-II: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change introduced the Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines to mandate scientific extraction and environmental safeguards.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
  • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
  • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: (d) Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect because there is no blanket exemption for minor mineral mining from Environmental Clearance based merely on a small lease area (judicial orders and the EIA notification mandate clearances). Statement-II is factually correct.

Topic 2: India Post Connects Branch Post Offices Through Drones

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory framework for drones in India:

  1. The Drone Rules, 2021 have abolished the requirement of prior permission for operating civil drones in designated ‘Green Zones’.
  2. ‘Digital Sky’ is a single-window online platform developed to facilitate airspace clearance and regulatory compliance for drones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Drone Rules 2021 liberalized operations by removing the need for prior approval in Green Zones, and Digital Sky is the official digital ecosystem for managing civil aviation drone regulations.

Q6. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is frequently highlighted as a tool for financial inclusion via the postal network. Which of the following statements about IPPB is/are correct?

  1. It is a 100% government-owned entity under the Ministry of Finance.
  2. It can accept demand deposits but is not permitted to issue credit cards or advance loans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statement 2 is correct as Payments Banks in India cannot issue credit cards or loans. Statement 1 is incorrect because IPPB falls under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Finance.

Q7. In the context of implementing drone-based logistics in regions like Assam and Himachal Pradesh, which of the following represent the most severe operational limitations?

  1. Strict payload carrying capacities.
  2. Battery endurance in mountainous terrain.
  3. High sensitivity to adverse meteorological conditions like fog and storms.
  4. Total lack of satellite navigation coverage in Northeast India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
  • (c) 1 and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) Explanation: Payload, battery life, and weather are the primary physical and logistical limitations for drones. Statement 4 is incorrect; India has robust satellite navigation coverage (GPS and NavIC) over the Northeast.

Q8. The use of drones for postal connectivity in Assam is considered highly significant primarily because:

  • (a) It replaces the need for local postmen, saving operational salary costs entirely.
  • (b) It bypasses circuitous road networks, seasonal floods, and riverine (char) isolations that delay conventional transport.
  • (c) Drones in Assam are exclusively permitted to carry high-value bank cash, bypassing local security risks.
  • (d) Assam lacks any functional road infrastructure, making air transport the only available option.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Drones complement existing networks by overcoming Assam’s specific geographical challenges like seasonal floods and difficult riverine terrains, vastly reducing travel time.

Topic 3: Arrest of Radical Elements and Internal Security

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:

  1. Under the Act, the Central Government has the power to designate organizations as well as individuals as terrorists.
  2. The Act applies only to Indian citizens committing offences within the territorial boundaries of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (individuals can be designated as terrorists following the 2019 amendment). Statement 2 is incorrect; UAPA has extraterritorial application and applies to foreign nationals as well if their actions threaten India’s security.

Q10. Statement-I: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) has the authority to take suo motu cognizance of terror activities in any state without requiring special permission from the State Government.

Statement-II: Public order and police are subjects placed in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, allowing overlapping jurisdiction.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
  • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
  • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement-I is correct; the NIA Act 2008 empowers the agency to investigate scheduled offences across India without state permission. Statement-II is incorrect; “Public Order” and “Police” are strictly State List subjects, not Concurrent.

Q11. In internal security terminology, which of the following best describes the technical difference between “Radicalisation” and “Violent Extremism”?

  • (a) Radicalisation only occurs through digital platforms, whereas violent extremism relies on physical recruitment.
  • (b) Radicalisation is the psychological process of adopting extreme beliefs, while violent extremism involves the actual use or direct support of violence to achieve those objectives.
  • (c) Radicalisation is considered a cognizable criminal offence under the BNS, while violent extremism is not.
  • (d) There is no distinction; both terms denote active armed rebellion against the state.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Radicalisation is a cognitive or psychological process (which is not intrinsically illegal until it translates into action). Violent extremism is the behavioural manifestation where violence is used or advocated.

Q12. The Imam Mahmuder Kafila (IMK) was recently in the news due to coordinated operations by the NIA. Which proscribed organization is it reportedly linked to?

  • (a) Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT)
  • (b) Jama’atul Mujahideen Bangladesh (JMB)
  • (c) United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA-I)
  • (d) Islamic State of Khorasan Province (ISKP)

Answer: (b) Explanation: As per the intelligence and investigation reports, IMK is an extremist network attempting to expand its base and is linked to the banned Jama’atul Mujahideen Bangladesh (JMB).

Topic 4: India at the UNGA Plenary and UN Reforms

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA):

  1. It is the only principal organ of the UN where all 193 Member States have equal representation and one vote each.
  2. Decisions on “important questions”, such as the admission of new members, require a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
  3. Resolutions passed by the UNGA are generally legally binding on all Member States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because UNGA resolutions are generally deliberative recommendations and are not legally binding (unlike specific UNSC resolutions).

Q14. With reference to amending the United Nations Charter (Article 108), consider the following requirements:

  1. Adoption by a two-thirds majority vote in the UN General Assembly.
  2. Ratification by two-thirds of the UN Member States.
  3. Mandatory ratification by all five permanent members of the Security Council.

Which of the above conditions must be fulfilled to successfully amend the UN Charter?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: According to Article 108 of the UN Charter, an amendment requires a two-thirds majority in the UNGA and ratification by two-thirds of the member states, which absolutely must include the constitutional ratification of all five permanent members (P5).

Q15. The “L.69 Group”, often mentioned in international affairs, is best described as:

  • (a) A coalition of least developed countries seeking climate finance compensation.
  • (b) A block of developing countries from Africa, Latin America, and Asia advocating for comprehensive reform of the UN Security Council.
  • (c) An intergovernmental panel strictly working on reforming the global nuclear non-proliferation treaty.
  • (d) A specialized working group under the G20 dealing with sovereign debt restructuring.

Answer: (b) Explanation: The L.69 Group is a pro-reform group of developing countries representing the Global South, firmly advocating for UN Security Council expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories.

Q16. Consider the following pairs of UN Principal Organs and their respective headquarters:

  1. International Court of Justice (ICJ) — The Hague
  2. UN Security Council (UNSC) — Geneva
  3. Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) — New York

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one pair
  • (b) Only two pairs
  • (c) All three pairs
  • (d) None of the pairs

Answer: (b) Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched (ICJ is in The Hague, Netherlands). Pair 3 is correctly matched (ECOSOC is in New York). Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because the UN Security Council is headquartered in New York, not Geneva.

Daily APSC Mains Answer Writing

Q. “The archaic architecture of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) not only suffers from a ‘crisis of legitimacy’ but also severely hampers effective global governance.” In the light of India’s demand for ‘reformed multilateralism’, critically examine the systemic challenges in achieving comprehensive UN reforms. (15 Marks, 250 Words)

Recently at the UNGA plenary, India highlighted that the UN’s 1945-era architecture faces a “crisis of relevance” in today’s multipolar world, emphasizing the urgent need for reformed multilateralism to give the Global South its rightful voice.

1. The Dual Crisis: Legitimacy and Global Governance

  • Geopolitical Exclusion: Despite constituting a massive share of the global population and GDP, regions like Africa and Latin America entirely lack permanent representation in the UNSC.
  • Operational Paralysis: The blatant abuse of the P5 Veto has rendered the UNSC ineffective during modern geopolitical crises (e.g., systemic gridlocks in resolving the Russia-Ukraine and Israel-Gaza conflicts).
  • Institutional Imbalance: The UN General Assembly (UNGA), despite being the most democratic organ with 193 members, is restricted to issuing non-binding recommendations, eroding its structural authority.

2. Systemic Challenges in Achieving Comprehensive Reforms

  • The Constitutional Roadblock (Article 108): Any amendment to the UN Charter requires ratification by two-thirds of member states, including all five permanent members. The P5 naturally resist any reform that dilutes their geopolitical monopoly.
  • Regional Rivalries (The ‘Coffee Club’): The Uniting for Consensus (UfC) group (led by Italy, Pakistan, and others) actively lobbies against the G4 nations (India, Brazil, Germany, Japan), blocking consensus on permanent seat expansion.
  • Stalled Intergovernmental Negotiations (IGN): Even after years of diplomatic discussions, the IGN process remains trapped in rhetorical debates without a standardized, text-based negotiation document to vote upon.
  • The Veto Dilemma: There is massive global disagreement on whether new permanent members should be granted the veto power, with some nations arguing that more vetoes will only deepen institutional paralysis.

3. India’s Strategic Approach and the Way Forward

  • Consolidating the Global South: India actively leverages groupings like the L.69 Group and its recent G20 Presidency to build an insurmountable diplomatic consensus for equitable representation.
  • Simultaneous UNGA Revitalisation: Alongside UNSC expansion, India advocates for upgrading the UNGA’s working methods and institutional accountability to make it the central deliberative body of global governance.
  • Transition to Text-Based Negotiations: The UN must immediately transition from open-ended IGN debates to a concrete, time-bound draft resolution process to force member states to record their official stances.

For the United Nations to remain the definitive bedrock of global governance rather than becoming a geopolitical relic, comprehensive structural reform is not just an Indian aspiration, but an immediate global necessity.

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