APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) – 30/10/2026
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For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (30-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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From The Assam Tribune, 30 October 2026
Topic 1: Assam Committee to Draft Rules for the State Uniform Civil Code
Q1. The Assam government has formed a committee to draft rules for the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill, Assam, 2026. Consider the following statements:
(i) The Secretary of the Home and Political departments chairs the committee.
(ii) The committee must submit its draft rules to the Finance department within one month.
(iii) The Bill has already received the President’s assent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) (i) only
- (b) (i) and (ii) only
- (c) (ii) and (iii) only
- (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: Deba Prasad Misra, Secretary of the Home and Political departments, is chairman, so (i) is right. The draft rules go to the Political (A) department, not Finance, so (ii) is wrong. The Bill has only been sent to the Government of India for the President’s assent, so (iii) is wrong.
Q2. Consider the following statements about the Uniform Civil Code:
(i) Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution.
(ii) Marriage and divorce are subjects on the Concurrent List.
(iii) The Uttarakhand UCC Act, 2024 applies to Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- (a) (i) only
- (b) (ii) only
- (c) (iii) only
- (d) (i) and (ii) only
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: Article 44 sits in Part IV, so (i) is correct. Entry 5 of the Concurrent List covers marriage and divorce, so (ii) is correct. The Uttarakhand Act excludes Scheduled Tribes, so (iii) is the incorrect statement.
Q3. Match List-I with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Goa’s civil code | 1. Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 |
| b. Article 44 | 2. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) |
| c. Uttarakhand UCC Rules, manual and portal | 3. Rolled out on 27 January 2025 |
| d. Assam UCC rules committee | 4. Sends draft rules to the Political (A) department |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- (a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
- (b) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
- (c) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
- (d) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: Goa follows the 1867 Portuguese Civil Code. Article 44 is in Part IV. Uttarakhand rolled out its UCC with a rules manual and portal on 27 January 2025. The Assam committee gives its draft rules to the Political (A) department. Only code (a) matches all four.
Q4. Which group of residents is left out of the scope of the Assam Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2026?
- (a) Scheduled Castes
- (b) Scheduled Tribes
- (c) Other Backward Classes
- (d) Persons living in live-in relationships
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: The Bill excludes Scheduled Tribes living in Assam, to protect their customs. Live-in couples are covered, since the Bill requires them to register. Scheduled Castes and OBCs are not exempt.
Topic 2: Kokrajhar-Gelephu Railway Link between Assam and Bhutan
Q5. The Centre has appointed the Secretary of the Bodoland Territorial Council as the competent authority for the Kokrajhar-Gelephu railway project under the Railways Act, 1989. Consider the following statements:
(i) A competent authority is a person authorised by the Central Government by notification for a specified area.
(ii) A special railway project is notified by the State Government concerned.
(iii) Chapter IVA of the Act deals with land acquisition for a special railway project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) (i) only
- (b) (i) and (iii) only
- (c) (ii) and (iii) only
- (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements (i) and (iii) are correct. Statement (ii) is wrong because the Central Government notifies a special railway project.
Q6. Match List-I with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Kokrajhar-Gelephu line | 1. Special Administrative Region of Bhutan |
| b. Banarhat-Samtse line | 2. Competent authority for the Kokrajhar-Gelephu project |
| c. Gelephu Mindfulness City | 3. Proposed line of 69.05 km |
| d. Secretary of the BTC, Kokrajhar | 4. Link of about 20 km starting in West Bengal |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- (a) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
- (b) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
- (c) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
- (d) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: The Kokrajhar-Gelephu line is 69.05 km. The Banarhat-Samtse link is about 20 km and starts in West Bengal. Gelephu Mindfulness City is a Special Administrative Region of Bhutan. The BTC Secretary is the competent authority.
Q7. Which one of the following statements about the Kokrajhar-Gelephu railway project is NOT correct?
- (a) The notification covers Kokrajhar and Chirang districts.
- (b) Balajan, Garubhasa, Runikhata, Shantipur, Dadgiri and Gelephu are the six planned stations.
- (c) The Ministry of Railways issued the notification under clause (7A) of Section 2 of the Railways Act, 1989.
- (d) The Deputy Commissioner of Kokrajhar has been appointed the competent authority.
Show answer
Answer: (d) Explanation: The Secretary of the Bodoland Territorial Council, Kokrajhar, is the competent authority, not the Deputy Commissioner. Statements (a), (b) and (c) match the notification and the project plan.
Q8. Gelephu, at the Bhutanese end of the proposed rail link from Kokrajhar, is the site of a new city project in southern Bhutan. What is the status of this project?
- (a) A Special Administrative Region set up by Royal Charter
- (b) A Special Economic Zone run jointly by India and Bhutan
- (c) A free trade zone set up under SAFTA
- (d) A district headquarters town declared a smart city with Indian aid
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: Gelephu Mindfulness City is a Special Administrative Region (SAR) of Bhutan. It was set up by Royal Charter in February 2024. It is Bhutan’s own project, not a joint zone with India or a SAFTA zone.
Topic 3: Drug Pricing, Trade Margins and the DPCO Framework
Q9. The Supreme Court has criticised the Centre and the NPPA over medicine prices. Consider the following statements about the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013:
(i) It is made under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
(ii) The ceiling price of a scheduled formulation is worked out from the average price to retailer of brands and generics with a market share of 1% or more, plus a retailer margin of 16%.
(iii) It bars every increase in the MRP of non-scheduled drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) (i) and (ii) only
- (b) (ii) and (iii) only
- (c) (i) only
- (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement (i) matches the opening of the Order, and statement (ii) matches Para 4. Statement (iii) is wrong. Para 20 lets the MRP of a non-scheduled drug rise, but by no more than ten percent over the preceding twelve months.
Q10. Assertion (A): Medicines outside the First Schedule of DPCO 2013 still face a limit on their yearly price rise.
Reason (R): Under the DPCO, the Government monitors the MRP of all drugs, including non-scheduled formulations, and no maker may raise the MRP by more than ten percent over the preceding twelve months.
- (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- (c) A is true but R is false
- (d) A is false but R is true
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: Para 20 of DPCO 2013 sets the ten percent rule for all drugs, including non-scheduled ones. That rule is exactly why a non-scheduled drug faces a limit on its yearly price rise. So both are true and R explains A.
Q11. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) was set up on 29 August 1997. It is at present an attached office of which department?
- (a) Department of Health and Family Welfare
- (b) Department of Pharmaceuticals
- (c) Department of Consumer Affairs
- (d) Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: NPPA is now an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. It began in 1997 under the then Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals, so option (d) is the old parent. The Health Ministry prepares the NLEM but does not control NPPA.
Q12. The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana, which sells generic medicines through Jan Aushadhi Kendras, is implemented through which body?
- (a) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
- (b) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
- (c) Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India
- (d) Indian Council of Medical Research
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: The Department of Pharmaceuticals runs the scheme through the Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI). NPPA fixes and monitors prices, but it does not run the Kendras.
Topic 4: Digital Arrest Frauds and Banks’ Liability for Victims
Q13. Under the RBI circular of 6 July 2017 on customer liability in unauthorised electronic banking transactions, consider the following statements:
(i) A customer has zero liability if the loss came from the bank’s own contributory fraud, negligence or deficiency.
(ii) For a third-party breach, zero liability needs the customer to report within seven working days.
(iii) The burden of proving the customer’s liability lies on the bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) (i) and (ii) only
- (b) (i) and (iii) only
- (c) (ii) and (iii) only
- (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements (i) and (iii) match the circular. Statement (ii) is wrong because zero liability in a third-party breach needs reporting within three working days of the bank’s alert. Reporting in 4 to 7 working days brings limited liability.
Q14. The Citizen Financial Cyber Fraud Reporting and Management System (CFCFRMS), linked to the 1930 helpline, functions under which body?
- (a) National Crime Records Bureau
- (b) Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre
- (c) Reserve Bank of India
- (d) Financial Intelligence Unit-India
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: CFCFRMS was launched in 2021 under I4C of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It links state police, banks and financial intermediaries. The RBI makes banking rules but does not run this system.
Q15. Which of the following statements about the cyber fraud reporting framework is NOT correct?
- (a) The helpline 1930 replaced the earlier number 155260.
- (b) The 1930 helpline is operated by State/UT police, who log the fraud details.
- (c) The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre was inaugurated on 10 January 2020.
- (d) CFCFRMS was launched in 2018.
Show answer
Answer: (d) Explanation: CFCFRMS was launched in 2021, not 2018. Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct. 1930 replaced 155260, State/UT police run the helpline, and I4C was inaugurated on 10 January 2020.
Q16. On 29 October 2026, the Supreme Court bench led by CJI Surya Kant identified two key areas needing further intervention in the digital arrest case. These were:
- (a) accountability of banks and mule accounts
- (b) cross-border data storage and SIM card limits
- (c) accountability of telecom firms and social media platforms
- (d) cyber insurance and bank deposit insurance
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: The CJI named bank accountability and mule accounts, which fraudsters use to collect and move cybercrime money. The other options are plausible but were not the two areas named.
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