APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) – 28/10/2026
In this post
- APSC Prelims MCQs
- Topic 1: Defections, Resignations and Bypolls: Re-examining the Tenth Schedule
- Topic 2: Siang Upper Multipurpose Project: Local Protests, PFR Stage and Dams in the…
- Topic 3: Disaster Risk Reduction: Very Severe Cyclone Arnab and India’s UNDRR Message
- Topic 4: Northeast Connectivity: Mizoram’s Sairang-Hmawngbuchhuah Rail Plan, NH-15 Four-Laning and Guwahati-Bangkok Flight
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (28-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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From The Assam Tribune, 28 October 2026
Topic 1: Defections, Resignations and Bypolls: Re-examining the Tenth Schedule
Q1. According to the ADR and National Election Watch report cited in the news, how many MPs and MLAs changed political parties between 2022 and 2026?
- (a) 11
- (b) 101
- (c) 111
- (d) 211
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: The report, released in September 2026, counted 111 MPs and MLAs changing parties in 2022-2026, covering defections, mergers, resignations followed by bypoll wins and returns after disqualification. The other figures are near-miss distractors.
Q2. In Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur Legislative Assembly (2020), the Supreme Court held that, absent exceptional circumstances, a Speaker should decide a disqualification petition within:
- (a) one month of filing
- (b) three months of filing
- (c) six months of filing
- (d) the remaining term of the House
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: The Court set three months from filing as the outer limit. Six months is the Section 151A bypoll period, a different rule, and is the trap in (c).
Q3. Under Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a vacancy in a legislature must ordinarily be filled by a bye-election within:
- (a) one month of the vacancy
- (b) three months of the vacancy
- (c) six months of the vacancy
- (d) one year of the vacancy
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: The section requires a bye-election within six months, except where the remainder of the term is less than one year or the ECI, in consultation with the Centre, certifies it is difficult. One year is the term-remainder threshold, not the filling period.
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Tenth Schedule:
1. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman on disqualification is open to judicial review.
2. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 introduced the exemption allowing one-third of a legislature party to split away without disqualification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Kihoto Hollohan (1992) held Paragraph 7 invalid and made such decisions subject to judicial review. Statement 2 is wrong: the 91st Amendment removed the split exemption; it did not introduce it.
Topic 2: Siang Upper Multipurpose Project: Local Protests, PFR Stage and Dams in the Eastern Himalaya
Q5. In the news, the East Siang Downstream Dam Affected People’s Forum, which met an Arunachal Pradesh minister on 27 October, represents communities spanning how many villages?
- (a) 52
- (b) 62
- (c) 72
- (d) 82
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: The forum, led by president Oni Tamuk, represents communities spanning 72 villages that could be affected by the Siang Upper Multipurpose Project. The other figures are distractors.
Q6. The high-level committee approved by the Arunachal Pradesh Cabinet in September to oversee PFR survey activities in Siang and Upper Siang districts is chaired by:
- (a) Chief Minister Pema Khandu
- (b) Ojing Tasing
- (c) Nabam Vivek
- (d) Oni Tamuk
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: Ojing Tasing, the Rural Development and Panchayati Raj Minister, chairs it. Nabam Vivek is the PPA president and Oni Tamuk the forum president.
Q7. Which of the following hydropower projects in Arunachal Pradesh, mentioned in the news, is being built by NHPC and described as India’s largest and tallest, with a 278 m dam?
- (a) Kamala Hydroelectric Project
- (b) Kalai-II Hydroelectric Project
- (c) Dibang Multipurpose Project
- (d) Siang Upper Multipurpose Project
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: Dibang is 2,880 MW with a dam about 278 m high. Kamala (1,720 MW) and Kalai-II (1,200 MW) are other recently approved projects, and SUMP (11,200 MW) is only at the PFR stage.
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the environmental clearance process under the EIA Notification, 2006:
1. It includes the stages of screening, scoping, public consultation and appraisal.
2. The public hearing is conducted by the State Pollution Control Board at or near the project site.
3. A Pre-Feasibility Report by itself amounts to environmental clearance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because a PFR is only the first technical study and does not approve a dam; environmental clearance comes much later, after the EIA study and public hearing.
Topic 3: Disaster Risk Reduction: Very Severe Cyclone Arnab and India’s UNDRR Message
Q9. The very severe cyclonic storm Arnab, which was expected to make landfall near Visakhapatnam on 28 October 2026, was named by which country on the WMO/ESCAP Panel list for the North Indian Ocean?
- (a) India
- (b) Bangladesh
- (c) Oman
- (d) Myanmar
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: Arnab is Bangladesh’s name, first in column 3 of the panel list; India’s name that follows it is Murasu.
Q10. The disaster risk reduction meeting at which PK Mishra spoke in New Delhi on 27 October 2026 was convened by the UNDRR and co-chaired by India and which other country?
- (a) Japan
- (b) Australia
- (c) The United Kingdom
- (d) The United States
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: The meeting was co-chaired by India and the United Kingdom. Japan is a tempting option because the Sendai Framework was adopted in Sendai, Japan, but it was not a co-chair.
Q11. Which one of the following is NOT one of the four priorities for action of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030?
- (a) Understanding disaster risk
- (b) Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk
- (c) Creating a global disaster insurance pool
- (d) Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: The four priorities are understanding risk, strengthening governance, investing in resilience and enhancing preparedness for effective response. A global insurance pool is not one of them.
Q12. Which one of the following bodies was given statutory status by the Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025?
- (a) National Crisis Management Committee
- (b) National Executive Committee
- (c) National Disaster Response Force
- (d) State Executive Committee
Show answer
Answer: (a) Explanation: The amendment gave statutory status to the NCMC (chaired by the Cabinet Secretary) and the High Level Committee. The NDRF and the National and State Executive Committees already existed under the 2005 Act; the amendment shifted plan preparation from the Executive Committees to NDMA and SDMAs.
Topic 4: Northeast Connectivity: Mizoram’s Sairang-Hmawngbuchhuah Rail Plan, NH-15 Four-Laning and Guwahati-Bangkok Flight
Q13. The proposed railway extension from Sairang is planned to end at Hmawngbuchhuah. In which district of Mizoram is Hmawngbuchhuah located?
- (a) Siaha
- (b) Lunglei
- (c) Lawngtlai
- (d) Serchhip
Show answer
Answer: (c) Explanation: The paper places Hmawngbuchhuah in Lawngtlai district, near the State’s southernmost end. Siaha, Lunglei and Serchhip are other districts on the proposed route but not the terminus.
Q14. Which of the following manages Lokapriya Gopinath Bardoloi International Airport, Guwahati, which IndiGo now links with Bangkok?
- (a) Airports Authority of India
- (b) Adani Airport Holdings Limited
- (c) NHIDCL
- (d) Northeast Frontier Railway
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: The airport authorities state that LGBIA is managed by Adani Airport Holdings Limited. NHIDCL is a highway-building agency and NFR is a railway zone, so (c) and (d) are distractors; the Airports Authority of India is not the body named as the airport’s manager.
Q15. Under the National Highways Act, 1956, after a section 3A notification, an interested person may object to the use of the land within how many days, and to whom?
- (a) 15 days, to the Central Government
- (b) 21 days, to the Competent Authority
- (c) 30 days, to the High Court
- (d) 60 days, to the District Collector
Show answer
Answer: (b) Explanation: The notification states that objections go to the Competent Authority within twenty-one days of publication in the Official Gazette, and the Competent Authority’s order is final. The other options give wrong periods or wrong authorities.
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding rail and transport links in the Northeast:
1. The Bairabi-Sairang line in Mizoram is 51.38 km long.
2. The proposed Sairang-Hmawngbuchhuah line is to be built with a design speed of 130 km per hour.
3. The Kaladan project links Kolkata Port with Sittwe Port in Myanmar before continuing by river and road.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: the line is 51.38 km. Statement 2 is correct: the proposed line is designed for speeds up to 130 km per hour. Statement 3 is correct: the Kaladan route goes from Kolkata to Sittwe by sea, then by the Kaladan river to Paletwa and by road to Zorinpui on the Mizoram border.
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