APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –28/09/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (28-09-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
APSC CCE Courses
APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 28/09/2026)
Topic 1: Zoramthanga Offers to Mediate among Centre, Assam and ULFA(I)
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA) and its peace process:
- The historic 2023 ULFA Peace Agreement was signed by the Government of India, the Government of Assam, and the ULFA(I) faction.
- The ULFA(I) faction is an anti-talks group that formally adopted the “Independent” nomenclature in 2013.
- ULFA was founded in April 1979, several months before the Assam Movement began.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2023 Memorandum of Settlement was signed with the Arabinda Rajkhowa-led pro-talks faction, while the Paresh Baruah-led ULFA(I) remained outside the settlement. Statement 2 is correct; the anti-talks faction formally adopted the nomenclature ULFA (Independent) in April 2013. Statement 3 is incorrect because ULFA was founded on 7 April 1979, while the Assam Movement began later in 1979.
Q2. The Free Movement Regime (FMR) and border security are crucial to the internal security of Northeast India. Consider the following states:
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Assam
- Manipur
- Mizoram
How many of the above states share a direct international border with Myanmar?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation: India shares a 1,643-km international border with Myanmar, touching Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram. Assam does not share a direct international border with Myanmar.
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the internal security legal framework in India:
- The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) provides the legal framework to declare organizations as “unlawful associations”.
- The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) grants special powers to the armed forces in geographically notified “disturbed areas”.
- The decision to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) along the India-Myanmar border was taken by the Ministry of External Affairs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. The decision to scrap the FMR was taken by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in the context of internal-security and demographic concerns. The FMR issue is closely connected with India’s management of the India-Myanmar border.
Topic 2: State Government Working to Recover Lost Wildlife Habitats & Pygmy Hog Conservation
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvinia):
- Its present natural distribution is largely restricted to Assam, although it historically occupied a much wider range along the Himalayan foothills.
- It is currently listed as “Endangered” on the IUCN Red List.
- Its conservation is closely associated with the protection and restoration of tall-grassland ecosystems.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Explanation: All three statements are correct. The Pygmy Hog historically had a much wider distribution across Himalayan foothill grasslands, but its present natural range is restricted to parts of Assam. It is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Its survival is strongly linked to the conservation and restoration of suitable tall-grassland habitat.
Q5. Consider the following pairs of protected areas and their primary characteristics:
- Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary – Located in the Himalayan foothills of Sonitpur, Assam.
- Bornadi Wildlife Sanctuary – Known historically for Pygmy Hog and Hispid Hare conservation.
- Kuribeel Grasslands – Associated with the original Pygmy Hog conservation programme in Manas National Park.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three pairs
Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched. These locations are important in the conservation geography of Assam’s grassland ecosystems and the recovery of species such as the Pygmy Hog.
Q6. Conservation of the Pygmy Hog requires protection and restoration of its tall-grassland habitat, which can simultaneously benefit several other grassland-dependent species. This conservation approach best illustrates the concept of:
(a) Keystone species
(b) Umbrella species
(c) Invasive alien species
(d) Ecotone species
Answer: (b) Umbrella species
Explanation: An umbrella species is a species whose habitat conservation can indirectly provide protection to several other species sharing that habitat. Restoration of suitable grasslands for Pygmy Hog conservation can therefore benefit other grassland-dependent fauna.
Q7. Consider the following activities undertaken in wildlife management:
- Captive breeding of endangered animals in controlled facilities.
- Conducting anti-poaching patrols to prevent further damage to a forest.
- Removing invasive alien plants to revive native tall grass.
Which of the activities mentioned above strictly represent “Habitat Restoration”?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation: Captive breeding is primarily ex-situ conservation and species recovery. Anti-poaching patrols constitute habitat/species protection, rather than restoration itself. Removal of invasive alien vegetation to allow the recovery of native grassland is a direct example of habitat restoration.
Topic 3: India Working Towards Developing 6th-Generation Fighter Jets
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding India’s combat aircraft development:
- The Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is India’s indigenous sixth-generation fighter programme.
- The AMCA project is being developed under an industry-partnership model involving both public and private sectors.
- Manned-unmanned teaming (loyal wingman) is a central technological feature expected in 6th-generation combat systems.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. AMCA is India’s indigenous fifth-generation fighter programme, not a sixth-generation fighter. Statement 2 is correct, as the programme incorporates an industry-partnership approach involving public and private-sector capabilities. Statement 3 is correct because manned-unmanned teaming, including loyal-wingman concepts, is an important feature associated with emerging sixth-generation combat-air systems.
Q9. Consider the following pairs of international combat air programmes and their participating countries:
- Global Combat Air Programme (GCAP) – UK, Italy, Japan
- Future Combat Air System (FCAS) – France, Germany, Spain
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Both pairs are correctly matched. GCAP is a trilateral programme involving the UK, Italy and Japan, while FCAS is a European collaborative programme involving France, Germany and Spain. GCAP is intended to develop a next-generation combat-air system for the 2030s.
Q10. Assertion (A): Scramjet engines are important for developing hypersonic propulsion systems and future high-speed combat technologies.
Reason (R): In a scramjet engine, the incoming supersonic airflow is slowed down to subsonic speeds before combustion occurs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (c) A is true but R is false
Explanation: Assertion is correct. A scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet) is designed for hypersonic flight and maintains supersonic airflow through the combustor. Slowing the airflow to subsonic speeds before combustion is characteristic of a conventional ramjet, not a scramjet.
Q11. The transition from 5th-generation to 6th-generation fighter jets marks a shift from platform-centric to system-centric warfare. Which of the following technologies are integral to 6th-generation fighters?
- Artificial Intelligence for threat prioritization
- Sensor fusion across air, land, sea, and space domains
- Reliance solely on airframe stealth while ignoring electronic warfare (EW)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: AI-enabled decision support and advanced multi-domain sensor fusion are important characteristics of emerging sixth-generation combat systems. Statement 3 is incorrect because sixth-generation warfare is expected to integrate electronic warfare, cyber capabilities, networking and spectrum dominance along with physical stealth.
Topic 4: Govt Health Scheme Benefits Reach Rural & Tea-Garden Mothers in Tinsukia
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding maternal health schemes in India:
- Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes institutional delivery by providing direct cash assistance to mothers.
- Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) focuses on completely free and cashless healthcare, including transport, for pregnant women.
- The Wage Compensation Scheme for Pregnant Women in Tea Gardens is a Central Sector Scheme funded fully by the Union Government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. JSY is intended to promote institutional delivery through cash assistance, while JSSK provides free and cashless services and transport-related entitlements for pregnant women in public health institutions. Statement 3 is incorrect because Assam’s Wage Compensation Scheme for Pregnant Women in Tea Garden Areas is a State Government initiative under the Assam health budget.
Q13. The concept of “Last-Mile Delivery” in welfare governance is best illustrated by which of the following administrative actions?
(a) Making beneficiaries travel to district headquarters to submit physical paperwork.
(b) Organizing localized outreach camps in remote tea estates to facilitate Aadhaar enrolment and open bank accounts.
(c) Replacing Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) with cash hand-outs distributed by local contractors.
(d) Focusing purely on building tertiary super-specialty hospitals in urban centers.
Answer: (b) Organizing localized outreach camps in remote tea estates to facilitate Aadhaar enrolment and open bank accounts
Explanation: Last-mile delivery seeks to ensure that government services actually reach intended beneficiaries, particularly those facing geographical, financial or administrative barriers. In Tinsukia, localized camps bring Aadhaar enrolment and banking services closer to pregnant women and tea-garden workers, thereby facilitating access to welfare benefits.
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) architecture:
- Financial inclusion, such as opening a bank account, can act as an instrument of welfare governance by enabling timely benefit payments.
- In welfare schemes using Aadhaar-linked DBT architecture, failure to complete required Aadhaar or banking formalities can create barriers to receiving benefits even when the beneficiary is otherwise eligible.
- Ayushman Arogya Mandirs in tea gardens represent a shift from comprehensive primary healthcare towards purely treatment-oriented emergency care.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Financial inclusion and completion of required authentication/banking formalities can facilitate the delivery of welfare benefits through DBT. Statement 3 is incorrect because Ayushman Arogya Mandirs are intended to strengthen comprehensive primary healthcare, including preventive, promotive and basic curative services, rather than shift towards purely emergency treatment.
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and healthcare access in tea-garden areas:
- Financial inclusion, such as opening a bank account, can act as an instrument of welfare governance by enabling timely benefit payments.
- In welfare schemes using Aadhaar-linked DBT architecture, failure to complete required Aadhaar or banking formalities can create barriers to receiving benefits even when the beneficiary is otherwise eligible.
- Ayushman Arogya Mandirs in tea gardens represent a shift from comprehensive primary healthcare towards purely treatment-oriented emergency care.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Financial inclusion enables eligible beneficiaries to receive welfare benefits directly through the banking system, while incomplete Aadhaar or banking formalities can create administrative barriers in schemes using such requirements. Statement 3 is incorrect. Ayushman Arogya Mandirs are intended to strengthen comprehensive primary healthcare, including preventive, promotive and basic curative services, rather than focus purely on emergency treatment.
Q16. Assam deploys Mobile Medical Units (MMUs) extensively in tea-garden areas. Which of the following socio-economic vulnerabilities does this initiative primarily aim to address?
- Geographical isolation of remote estates
- Opportunity costs and wage loss due to travelling for healthcare
- Lack of access to specialized tertiary-level surgeries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: MMUs are designed to bridge healthcare-access gaps in outreach, hard-to-reach and tea-garden areas by bringing comprehensive primary healthcare closer to communities. Their services include ANC, diagnostics, medicines and referral to higher facilities. They therefore help address geographical isolation and the time/opportunity costs associated with travelling for healthcare. Specialized tertiary-level surgeries are not the primary function of MMUs; complicated cases are referred to higher facilities.
✨ APSC CCE Courses, 2025-26 offered by SuchitraACS
🔔 Join Our WhatsApp Study Group!
For exclusive access to premium quality content, including study materials, current affairs, MCQs, and model answers for APSC CCE and other Assam competitive exams.
Click here to join: SuchitraACS Study WhatsApp Group
📚 Want to know more about SuchitraACS’s most affordable courses?
Click here to know more: SuchitraACS Courses for APSC CCE and Assam Competitive Examinations
