APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –25/06/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (25-06-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 25/06/2026)

Q1. With reference to Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS), consider the following statements:

BESS can store excess electricity generated from renewable sources for later use.
BESS helps in maintaining grid frequency and stability.
Utility-scale BESS can only be installed alongside hydroelectric projects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect. BESS can be integrated with solar, wind, thermal and transmission networks.

Q2. Consider the following regarding the UK PACT Programme:

It is funded through the UK’s International Climate Finance.
It supports low-carbon transitions in partner countries.
It is implemented by the International Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

UK PACT is funded by the UK International Climate Finance (ICF) to support climate transitions. It is not implemented by the International Energy Agency.

Q3. Which one of the following best explains the term “Grid Flexibility”?

A. Ability of power grids to generate only renewable electricity

B. Ability of the electricity system to balance changing supply and demand

C. Complete replacement of thermal power plants

D. Inter-state transfer of electricity without transmission lines

Answer: B

Explanation:

Grid flexibility refers to the capability of the electricity system to balance variable demand and supply while maintaining reliability.

Q4. With reference to Flash Floods, consider the following statements:

Flash floods generally develop within a few hours after intense rainfall.
Flash floods usually have higher flow velocity than riverine floods.
Flash floods occur only in mountainous regions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Flash floods develop rapidly and move with high velocity. They can also occur in urban and plain areas due to cloudbursts or poor drainage.

Q5. Which of the following rivers originate in Arunachal Pradesh and significantly influence flood conditions in Assam?

Dibang
Lohit
Subansiri
Mahanadi

Select the correct answer using the code below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

Dibang, Lohit and Subansiri originate in Arunachal Pradesh. Mahanadi does not.

Q6. Consider the following organizations:

National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
State Disaster Response Force (SDRF)
Assam State Disaster Management Authority (ASDMA)

Which of the above play a role in disaster management?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

All three are integral components of India’s disaster management framework.

Q7. With reference to the Strait of Hormuz, consider the following statements:

It connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
It is one of the world’s most important oil transit chokepoints.
It lies between Iran and Oman.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

All three statements are correct.

Q8. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) primarily aims to:

A. Promote nuclear disarmament through military inspections only

B. Promote peaceful uses of nuclear energy while ensuring safeguards against military diversion

C. Regulate global oil markets

D. Monitor international climate agreements

Answer: B

Explanation:

IAEA promotes peaceful nuclear energy and verifies compliance through safeguards and inspections.

Q9. Which of the following countries are members of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)?

Bahrain
Kuwait
Iran
Oman

Select the correct answer using the code below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

Iran is not a member of the GCC.

Q10. With reference to the National Emergency declared in 1975, consider the following statements:

It was proclaimed under Article 352.
It was declared on the ground of Internal Disturbance.
It continued until March 1977.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

All three statements are correct.

Q11. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments replaced the expression “Internal Disturbance” with “Armed Rebellion” in Article 352?

A. 38th Constitutional Amendment

B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment

C. 44th Constitutional Amendment

D. 52nd Constitutional Amendment

Answer: C

Explanation:

The 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) introduced this safeguard.

Q12. With reference to Article 359 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

It empowers the President to suspend the enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
After the 44th Constitutional Amendment, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Both statements correctly describe Article 359 after the 44th Amendment.

Q13. Consider the following pairs:

Case	Principle Established
1. Kesavananda Bharati	Basic Structure Doctrine
2. ADM Jabalpur	Expanded protection of personal liberty during Emergency
3. Minerva Mills	Limited Parliament’s amending power

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

Pair 1 and Pair 3 are correct. ADM Jabalpur is known for restricting, not expanding, protection of personal liberty during the Emergency.

Q14. Which of the following statements best explains the significance of the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

A. It abolished preventive detention laws.

B. It strengthened safeguards against the misuse of Emergency provisions.

C. It removed Fundamental Duties.

D. It introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The 44th Amendment strengthened constitutional safeguards against arbitrary proclamation and continuation of National Emergency.

Q15. Consider the following statements:

Energy security, disaster resilience and democratic governance are all important dimensions of national security.
Climate-induced disasters can directly affect critical infrastructure and energy systems.
Constitutional governance and disaster management have no relevance to sustainable development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because constitutional governance and effective disaster management are essential for sustainable development.

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