APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Questions (23/05/2026)

APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –23/05/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (23-05-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 23/05/2026)


1. Radicalization refers to:

A. Adoption of extremist ideologies that may justify violence
B. Expansion of industrial production
C. Increase in literacy levels
D. Promotion of regional trade

Answer: A. Adoption of extremist ideologies that may justify violence

Explanation:

Radicalization involves the process by which individuals adopt extremist beliefs that may threaten social harmony or national security.


2. Which of the following are commonly associated with cyber radicalization?

  1. Social media propaganda
  2. Encrypted communication platforms
  3. Online recruitment networks

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Modern extremist organizations frequently use digital platforms for recruitment and propaganda dissemination.


3. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established in:

A. 1965
B. 1971
C. 2008
D. 2014

Answer: C. 2008

Explanation:

NIA was established after the Mumbai terror attacks to investigate terrorism-related offences.


4. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is primarily related to:

A. Environmental conservation
B. Counter-terrorism and unlawful activities
C. Industrial licensing
D. Urban development

Answer: B. Counter-terrorism and unlawful activities

Explanation:

UAPA is India’s principal anti-terror legislation.


5. “Disproportionate assets” cases generally involve:

A. Illegal land acquisition by corporations
B. Assets exceeding known legal sources of income
C. Foreign exchange fluctuations
D. Unauthorized urban construction

Answer: B. Assets exceeding known legal sources of income

Explanation:

Such cases are investigated under anti-corruption laws against public servants.


6. Which of the following institutions is a statutory vigilance body in India?

A. Central Vigilance Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. NITI Aayog
D. UPSC

Answer: A. Central Vigilance Commission

Explanation:

The CVC supervises vigilance administration and anti-corruption measures.


7. The Prevention of Corruption Act was originally enacted in:

A. 1950
B. 1976
C. 1988
D. 2005

Answer: C. 1988

Explanation:

The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is India’s principal anti-corruption law.


8. The Assam Accord fixed which date as the cut-off date for identification of illegal migrants?

A. 15 August 1947
B. 25 June 1975
C. 24 March 1971
D. 26 January 1950

Answer: C. 24 March 1971

Explanation:

The Assam Accord recognized 24 March 1971 as the cut-off date for detection and deportation of illegal migrants.


9. The Border Security Force (BSF) was established in:

A. 1947
B. 1962
C. 1965
D. 1971

Answer: C. 1965

Explanation:

BSF was established after the India-Pakistan conflict of 1965.


10. Smart fencing in border management uses:

  1. Sensors
  2. Cameras
  3. Drones

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Smart fencing combines surveillance technologies for effective border monitoring.


11. Article 44 of the Constitution relates to:

A. Right to Education
B. Uniform Civil Code
C. Emergency provisions
D. Official language policy

Answer: B. Uniform Civil Code

Explanation:

Article 44 directs the State to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code.


12. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides autonomy to tribal areas in:

  1. Assam
  2. Meghalaya
  3. Mizoram

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.


13. Which of the following are Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?

A. Enforceable by courts
B. Legally punishable if violated
C. Non-justiciable guiding principles
D. Temporary constitutional provisions

Answer: C. Non-justiciable guiding principles

Explanation:

Directive Principles guide governance but are not enforceable by courts.


14. Article 29 of the Constitution protects:

A. Emergency powers of Parliament
B. Cultural and educational rights
C. Property rights of corporations
D. Financial powers of states

Answer: B. Cultural and educational rights

Explanation:

Article 29 safeguards the cultural and educational rights of minorities.


15. Which of the following best reflects “cooperative federalism”?

A. Absolute centralization of powers
B. Conflict between Union and states
C. Coordination and partnership between different levels of government
D. Judicial control over all state policies

Answer: C. Coordination and partnership between different levels of government

Explanation:

Cooperative federalism emphasizes collaboration between Union and state governments in governance and policymaking.

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