APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –18/11/2025
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (18-11-2025). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 18/11/2025)
TOPIC 1: Electoral Roll Revision in Assam
Question 1 (Factual Recall – Direct)
With reference to the Special Revision of Electoral Rolls in Assam announced in November 2025, consider the following statements:
- The qualifying date for the revision is January 1, 2026.
- The revision is being conducted under Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- The final electoral roll will be published on February 10, 2026.
- Booth Level Officers (BLOs) will conduct house-to-house verification between November 22 and December 20, 2025.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: CORRECT – The qualifying date is January 1, 2026 (mentioned in news).
- Statement 2: INCORRECT – The revision is under Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (not 1951). The 1950 Act deals with electoral rolls and delimitation; the 1951 Act deals with conduct of elections.
- Statement 3: CORRECT – Final publication date is February 10, 2026.
- Statement 4: CORRECT – House-to-house verification by BLOs from Nov 22 to Dec 20, 2025.
UPSC Pattern Used: Statement-based (mix of facts); one statement has a year error (classic UPSC trap)
Question 2 (Concept Application – Constitutional Provision)
Which of the following authorities is/are responsible for the preparation and revision of electoral rolls in India?
- Chief Election Commissioner
- Electoral Registration Officer (ERO)
- Booth Level Officer (BLO)
- District Magistrate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- ERO (Electoral Registration Officer): Responsible for preparation and periodic revision of electoral rolls for each Assembly Constituency (under Superintendence of ECI).
- BLO (Booth Level Officer): Grassroots functionary; conducts door-to-door enumeration and assists ERO.
- CEC: Provides superintendence, direction, and control but does NOT directly prepare rolls.
- District Magistrate: Acts as District Election Officer but doesn’t prepare electoral rolls themselves.
UPSC Pattern Used: Authority/Agency identification (tests understanding of election machinery)
Question 3 (Analytical – Assam Context)
The Election Commission of India excluded Assam from the pan-India Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in October 2025 and announced a separate special revision. What could be the most plausible reason?
(a) Assam’s electoral rolls were already updated in 2024
(b) The citizenship issue in Assam is under Supreme Court supervision
(c) Assam is not going to Assembly polls in the next two years
(d) Assam requested to opt out of the national revision
Answer: (b) The citizenship issue in Assam is under Supreme Court supervision
Explanation: As per the news article, CEC Gyanesh Kumar stated: “The citizenship issue in Assam was currently under the supervision of the Supreme Court and the revision of electoral rolls would be announced separately.”
This refers to the post-NRC (National Register of Citizens) sensitivities and ongoing legal cases regarding citizenship determination in Assam.
UPSC Pattern Used: Analytical reasoning based on current affairs + constitutional/legal context
TOPIC 2: Bangladesh Political Crisis – Sheikh Hasina
Question 4 (International Relations – Treaty Based)
Consider the following statements about the India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty (2013):
- It allows extradition for offenses punishable by imprisonment of one year or more.
- Political offenses are explicitly excluded from the extradition provisions.
- India can refuse extradition if there is a risk of the death penalty being imposed.
- The treaty was signed during Narendra Modi’s first term as Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: CORRECT – Treaty covers offenses with 1+ year imprisonment.
- Statement 2: CORRECT – Political offenses are a standard exception in extradition treaties.
- Statement 3: CORRECT – India typically refuses extradition where death penalty/torture risk exists (humanitarian exception).
- Statement 4: INCORRECT – The treaty was signed in 2013 during Manmohan Singh’s tenure, not Modi’s (Modi became PM in May 2014).
UPSC Pattern Used: Treaty-based question with chronological trap
Question 5 (Governance – International Tribunals)
The International Crimes Tribunal (ICT) of Bangladesh, which sentenced Sheikh Hasina in 2025, was originally established to try which of the following?
(a) War crimes during the 1971 Liberation War
(b) Crimes against humanity during the 1947 Partition
(c) Terrorism cases related to Jamaat-e-Islami
(d) Corruption cases of political leaders
Answer: (a) War crimes during the 1971 Liberation War
Explanation: The ICT was established in 2010 by the Awami League government to prosecute individuals accused of genocide and crimes against humanity during the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War (Pakistani forces and local collaborators). It was amended in 2024 to include post-independence crimes, enabling it to try Sheikh Hasina.
UPSC Pattern Used: Historical + current affairs fusion
Question 6 (Geography/Polity – Assam Specific)
Assam shares a border of approximately how many kilometers with Bangladesh?
(a) 165 km
(b) 263 km
(c) 380 km
(d) 456 km
Answer: (b) 263 km
Explanation: India’s total border with Bangladesh is 4,096 km (longest land boundary). Assam shares approximately 263 km of this border. This is important for APSC candidates as border security, infiltration, and trade via Bangladesh are key issues for Assam.
UPSC/APSC Pattern Used: Geography + current affairs integration (state-specific)
TOPIC 3: India’s Export Contraction & Trade Deficit
Question 7 (Economic Concepts – Balance of Payments)
Consider the following statements:
- Trade deficit occurs when a country’s imports exceed its exports.
- A trade deficit always leads to a current account deficit.
- Services trade surplus can partially offset merchandise trade deficit.
- India had a merchandise trade deficit of USD 41.68 billion in October 2025.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: CORRECT – By definition, trade deficit = imports > exports.
- Statement 2: INCORRECT – Trade deficit is part of current account, but current account also includes services, income transfers, remittances. A country can have trade deficit but current account surplus if services/remittances are high (not India’s case, but conceptually important).
- Statement 3: CORRECT – India has services surplus (~USD 180 billion annually) which partially offsets merchandise deficit.
- Statement 4: CORRECT – As per the news article.
UPSC Pattern Used: Conceptual clarity test (Statement 2 is the discriminator)
Question 8 (Policy – Export Schemes)
Which of the following schemes is/are aimed at promoting exports from India?
- RoDTEP (Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products)
- EPCG (Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme)
- Interest Equalization Scheme for MSME exporters
- PAHAL Scheme
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- RoDTEP: Replaced MEIS; refunds embedded central, state, and local taxes on exported products.
- EPCG: Allows duty-free import of capital goods for export production.
- Interest Equalization Scheme: Provides 3% interest subsidy to MSME exporters.
- PAHAL: This is the LPG subsidy direct transfer scheme (not export-related).
UPSC Pattern Used: Scheme identification with one unrelated scheme (classic trap)
Question 9 (Current Affairs – US Tariffs)
In 2025, the Trump administration imposed 50% tariffs on Indian goods. This 50% comprises:
(a) 25% reciprocal tariff + 25% penalty for buying Russian oil
(b) 40% reciprocal tariff + 10% national security tariff
(c) 30% customs duty + 20% anti-dumping duty
(d) 50% uniform tariff on all emerging market economies
Answer: (a) 25% reciprocal tariff + 25% penalty for buying Russian oil
Explanation: As mentioned in the news article, the 50% tariff comprises:
- 25% “reciprocal tariff” (Trump’s policy to match India’s average tariff on US goods)
- 25% additional penalty for India’s purchase of Russian crude oil
UPSC Pattern Used: Disaggregation of a composite figure (tests careful reading)
TOPIC 4: India-US LPG Deal
Question 10 (Energy Security – Sector Knowledge)
Consider the following statements about Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) in India:
- India is self-sufficient in LPG production and does not need to import.
- The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana has significantly increased LPG consumption in India.
- Traditionally, India imports 90% of its LPG from Middle Eastern countries.
- In 2025, India signed a structured contract to import LPG from the United States for the first time.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: INCORRECT – India imports ~65% of its LPG (20.4 million tonnes out of 31 million tonnes consumption).
- Statement 2: CORRECT – PMUY launched in 2016; provided 10+ crore free connections, massively boosting demand.
- Statement 3: CORRECT – UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia account for ~90% of India’s LPG imports.
- Statement 4: INCORRECT – India has imported LPG from US sporadically before; this is the first STRUCTURED/LONG-TERM contract, not first-ever import.
UPSC Pattern Used: “First time” trap (tests precision in language)
Question 11 (Geography – Shipping Routes)
The news article mentions that shipping LPG from the US Gulf Coast to India takes approximately 45 days, compared to 7-10 days from the Middle East. Which of the following routes would a ship transporting LPG from the US Gulf Coast to India most likely take?
(a) Via Panama Canal → Pacific Ocean → Indian Ocean
(b) Via Cape of Good Hope → Atlantic Ocean → Indian Ocean
(c) Via Suez Canal → Red Sea → Indian Ocean
(d) Via Arctic Ocean → Pacific Ocean → Indian Ocean
Answer: (a) Via Panama Canal → Pacific Ocean → Indian Ocean
Explanation: From US Gulf Coast (Texas/Louisiana) to India, the shortest maritime route is: Gulf of Mexico → Panama Canal → Pacific Ocean → Indian Ocean → West Coast of India
Alternative route via Cape of Good Hope would be even longer. Suez Canal route is used for Europe-Asia, not Americas-Asia in this context.
UPSC Pattern Used: Applied geography (shipping routes)
Question 12 (Polity/IR – Trade Negotiations)
The India-US LPG deal announced in November 2025 is part of India’s strategy to address which of the following?
- Reducing dependence on Middle Eastern energy sources
- Narrowing trade surplus with the United States
- Securing energy supplies for the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
- Complying with International Energy Agency (IEA) mandates
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- 1: CORRECT – Diversification away from 90% Middle East dependence.
- 2: CORRECT – US complains of USD 35 billion trade deficit with India; this deal shows India increasing US imports.
- 3: CORRECT – Stable LPG supply ensures uninterrupted service to 10+ crore Ujjwala beneficiaries.
- 4: INCORRECT – No IEA mandate involved; this is bilateral commercial/diplomatic arrangement.
UPSC Pattern Used: Multiple objectives question (tests comprehensive understanding)
TOPIC 5: 16th Finance Commission
Question 13 (Constitutional Provisions)
Which of the following are functions of the Finance Commission as per Article 280 of the Constitution?
- Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and States
- Determining the principles for grants-in-aid to States
- Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of States
- Allocation of funds to States under Centrally Sponsored Schemes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Article 280 mandates Finance Commission to recommend on:
- Distribution of net proceeds of central taxes (Article 270)
- Principles for grants-in-aid to States (Article 275)
- Measures to augment State Consolidated Funds for Panchayats/Municipalities
- Any other matter referred by President
Statement 4 is INCORRECT: Allocation under Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) is executive decision by NITI Aayog/respective ministries, not Finance Commission’s mandate.
UPSC Pattern Used: Constitutional function vs administrative function (classic confusion)
Question 14 (Historical – Finance Commission Evolution)
Arrange the following Finance Commissions in chronological order of their award periods:
- Finance Commission that recommended 42% devolution (highest ever)
- Finance Commission that recommended lowest devolution of 29%
- Finance Commission that saw abolition of Planning Commission
- Current Finance Commission (2026-2031)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 2-3-1-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 1-2-3-4
Answer: (a) 2-1-3-4
Explanation:
- 2: 10th FC (1995-2000) – Lowest devolution at 29%
- 1: 14th FC (2015-2020) – Highest devolution at 42%
- 3: 14th FC period also saw abolition of Planning Commission (2014-15)
- 4: 16th FC (2026-2031) – Current
Chronologically: 10th → 14th → 14th → 16th
Code: 2-1-3-4
UPSC Pattern Used: Chronological arrangement with overlapping events (Statement 1 and 3 refer to same FC)
Question 15 (Fiscal Federalism – Concept-Based)
Consider the following statements about ‘Cess’ and ‘Surcharge’ in Indian taxation:
- Both cess and surcharge are levied over and above basic tax rates.
- Proceeds from cess and surcharge form part of the ‘divisible pool’ shared with States.
- The increasing use of cess and surcharge by the Centre has been a point of contention in Centre-State financial relations.
- Education Cess and Health Cess are examples of cesses that are not shared with States.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: CORRECT – Both are additional levies on basic tax.
- Statement 2: INCORRECT – Cess and surcharge are NOT part of divisible pool; only basic taxes are shared with States (this is the core grievance).
- Statement 3: CORRECT – States allege Centre bypasses devolution by levying more cess instead of taxes.
- Statement 4: CORRECT – Education Cess, Health & Education Cess, Swachh Bharat Cess – all retained by Centre.
UPSC Pattern Used: Fiscal federalism conceptual clarity
Question 16 (Polity – Special Category Status)
Which of the following States/UTs currently enjoy Special Category Status as per the 14th Finance Commission recommendations?
(a) Assam, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
(b) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya
(c) Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Sikkim
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation: 14th Finance Commission (2015) ABOLISHED the concept of Special Category Status. It was replaced with:
- Performance-based incentives
- Challenge-based grants (for specific issues like insurgency, disasters)
Previously (before 2015): 11 States had special status (8 NE States, Himachal, Uttarakhand, J&K).
Current status: No State has formal “Special Category Status” post-2015, though some States (Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Assam) demand its restoration.
UPSC Pattern Used: Post-reform status question (tests updated knowledge)
Question 17 (Analytical – Assam Context GS-5)
Assam has been demanding restoration of Special Category Status. Which of the following factors strengthen Assam’s claim?
- Annual recurring floods affecting 30-40% of the State’s area
- International borders with Bangladesh and Bhutan
- Post-conflict zones in Bodoland and Karbi Anglong
- High per capita income compared to other northeastern States
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- 1: STRENGTHENS claim – Natural disaster vulnerability (criteria for special provisions)
- 2: STRENGTHENS claim – Strategic border location; security costs
- 3: STRENGTHENS claim – Post-conflict reconstruction needs
- 4: WEAKENS claim – Higher per capita income actually argues AGAINST special status (special status is for economically backward/strategically challenged States)
UPSC/APSC Pattern Used: Assam-specific analytical question (critical for GS-5)
Question 18 (Current Affairs + Economics)
The 16th Finance Commission was originally scheduled to submit its report by October 31, 2025, but received an extension. Who has the authority to grant such an extension?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Finance Minister
(c) President of India
(d) Parliament
Answer: (c) President of India
Explanation: Under Article 280, the Finance Commission is constituted by the President through a Presidential Order. The President determines:
- Composition of the Commission
- Qualifications of members
- Terms of reference
- Timeline for submission
Hence, extension can only be granted by the President (on advice of Council of Ministers).
UPSC Pattern Used: Constitutional authority identification
Question 19 (Statement-Based – Mixed Difficulty)
With reference to the 15th Finance Commission (2021-2026), consider the following statements:
- It recommended a vertical devolution of 41% to States, which is lower than the 42% recommended by the 14th Finance Commission.
- The reduction was due to the conversion of Jammu & Kashmir into two Union Territories.
- It introduced ‘Demographic Performance’ as a new criterion for horizontal distribution among States.
- It recommended continuation of the GST compensation cess beyond June 2022.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: CORRECT – 41% vs 42% of 14th FC.
- Statement 2: CORRECT – With J&K becoming UT, Centre’s direct expenditure increased, hence devolution reduced by 1%.
- Statement 3: CORRECT – Demographic Performance (12.5% weight) introduced to reward States with better population control.
- Statement 4: INCORRECT – GST compensation cess (guaranteed for 5 years from 2017) ended in June 2022. 15th FC did NOT recommend its continuation; it suggested States improve their own revenue mobilization.
UPSC Pattern Used: Recent commission recommendations (tests detailed reading)
Question 20 (Application-Based – Disaster Management)
The 16th Finance Commission has been mandated to review the financing of disaster management initiatives. In this context, which of the following funds are constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
- National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)
- State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)
- National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF)
- District Disaster Response Fund (DDRF)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides for:
- NDRF (National Disaster Response Fund): At national level; for emergency response
- SDRF (State Disaster Response Fund): At state level; for immediate relief
NDMF (National Disaster Mitigation Fund): Proposed but NOT yet constituted (Section 46 of Act; awaiting operationalization).
DDRF: No such fund exists under the Act.
Current sharing ratio: 75% Centre : 25% State for SDRF (90:10 for special category/NE States when they existed).
UPSC Pattern Used: Act-based question with non-existent fund as trap
BONUS QUESTIONS (Multi-topic Integration)
Question 21 (Integrated – Economy + IR)
Consider the following pairs:
| Economic Indicator | Impact on India (as per Nov 2025 news) |
| 1. US Tariffs on India | Exports contracted by 11.8% |
| 2. Gold Imports | Surged by 200% in October 2025 |
| 3. LPG Import Deal | India to import from US for first time ever |
| 4. Trade Deficit | Reached record USD 41.68 billion in Oct 2025 |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Pair 1: CORRECT – US tariffs contributed to export contraction.
- Pair 2: CORRECT – Gold imports jumped 200% due to festive demand.
- Pair 3: INCORRECT – India has imported LPG from US before; this is first structured long-term contract, not first-ever.
- Pair 4: CORRECT – Highest-ever monthly trade deficit.
UPSC Pattern Used: Matching pairs with subtle language trap
Question 22 (Integrated – Polity + Current Affairs)
The recent developments involving Sheikh Hasina of Bangladesh and the 16th Finance Commission report highlight different aspects of India’s federal structure. Which of the following correctly describes these aspects?
- Sheikh Hasina’s asylum in India is an executive decision of the Union Government under Article 73.
- The Finance Commission recommendations on tax devolution are binding on the Central Government.
- Assam’s demand for Special Category Status can be granted by the Finance Commission.
- Extradition decisions require Parliamentary approval.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: CORRECT – Asylum/refuge is executive decision (Article 73 – executive power of Union extends to foreign affairs).
- Statement 2: INCORRECT – Finance Commission recommendations are advisory, not binding (though conventionally accepted).
- Statement 3: INCORRECT – Special Category Status is granted by Central Government (NITI Aayog/PMO), not Finance Commission (FC can only recommend challenge-based grants).
- Statement 4: INCORRECT – Extradition is executive decision (Ministry of External Affairs + Ministry of Home Affairs); no Parliamentary approval required (though subject to judicial review).
UPSC Pattern Used: Cross-topic conceptual clarity
Question 23 (Application – Assam-Specific GS-5)
In the context of Assam’s economic and administrative challenges, which of the following would be addressed by adequate recommendations from the 16th Finance Commission?
- Annual flood relief and rehabilitation
- Border area infrastructure development
- Tea industry labor welfare schemes
- Implementation of National Education Policy 2020
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Finance Commission’s scope:
- 1: YES – SDRF allocation for disasters (floods); FC can recommend enhanced allocation
- 2: YES – Border Area Development through grants-in-aid (Article 275)
- 3: NO – Tea industry welfare is sectoral policy (Ministry of Commerce/Labour); not in FC’s mandate
- 4: NO – NEP implementation funding is through Central sector schemes (Ministry of Education); not FC’s direct mandate (though FC can recommend augmenting state education funds generally)
UPSC/APSC Pattern Used: Distinguishing FC’s scope from other policy interventions
📊 Summary Statistics of Questions
| Category | Number of Questions |
| Factual Recall | 6 |
| Conceptual Understanding | 8 |
| Analytical/Application | 6 |
| Current Affairs Integration | 3 |
| TOTAL | 23 |
| Difficulty Level | Count |
| Easy | 8 |
| Moderate | 10 |
| Difficult | 5 |
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