APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) – 03/11/2026

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement (i) is correct. The pilot covers eight estates under six Block Primary Health Centres, so the number six refers to the centres and not the estates. Statement (iii) is correct. Besides children aged 0-5 years, the programme names adolescent girls, women, pregnant women and lactating mothers. Statement (ii) is wrong because the pilot covers only eight selected estates, not every estate in the district. Hence options (b), (c) and (d), which include (ii), are wrong. Value addition: Anaemia Mukt Bharat, the national programme, began in 2018 and follows a 6x6x6 strategy for six target groups.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements (i) and (iii) are correct. AMB started in 2018 with six interventions, six target groups and six institutional mechanisms. National Deworming Day is held on 10 February and 10 August for ages 1-19. Statement (ii) is incorrect because children aged 6-59 months get biweekly IFA syrup, not a daily tablet. Daily IFA tablets are meant for pregnant women from the second trimester onwards. So only two statements are correct, and options (a), (c) and (d) fail. Value addition: AMB set a target of cutting anaemia by 3 percentage points a year from the NFHS-4 baseline.

Answer: (c) Explanation: The correct pairs are a-1, b-2, c-3 and d-4. The Dibrugarh pilot runs on a structured 12-month action plan. Under AMB, young children aged 6-59 months receive biweekly IFA syrup. National Deworming Day falls on 10 February and 10 August every year. NFHS-5 found 67.1% of Indian children aged 6-59 months anaemic. Option (a) swaps the pilot and the syrup. Option (b) swaps the deworming dates and the survey figure. Option (d) mismatches every pair. Value addition: Assam’s child anaemia figure in NFHS-5 was even higher, at 68.4%, up from 35.7% in NFHS-4.

Answer: (c) Explanation: Cash transfer to pregnant women is not one of the six AMB interventions. AMB works through supplements, deworming, behaviour change communication, testing and treatment, fortified food and action on non-nutritional causes. Option (a) is the first intervention. Option (b) is the fifth, as fortified food is mandatory in government-funded public health programmes. Option (d) is the fourth, with special focus on pregnant women and school-going adolescents. Hence only (c) is not part of AMB. Value addition: the sixth intervention targets non-nutritional causes of anaemia, such as malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis, in endemic pockets.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements (i) and (iii) are correct. The bench of Justices J. Chelameswar and R.F. Nariman struck down Section 66A in full because it breached Article 19(1)(a) and did not fit any ground in Article 19(2). It also read down Section 79(3)(b), so a platform must remove content only after a court order or a government notification. Statement (ii) is wrong because the Court upheld Section 69A and the 2009 blocking rules, which lay down a procedure with safeguards. So option (a) misses statement (iii), while options (c) and (d) wrongly include (ii). Value addition: the Court also read down Rule 3(4) of the 2011 Intermediary Guidelines Rules in the same way as Section 79(3)(b).

Answer: (a) Explanation: Shreya Singhal (2015) struck down Section 66A, so a matches 3. Anuradha Bhasin (2020) held that an indefinite suspension of internet services is not allowed and that orders must be proportionate, so b matches 2. Kunal Kamra challenged the 2023 IT Rules amendment that created a government fact-check unit, so c matches 1. Section 69A, the blocking power, was upheld in 2015, so d matches 4. Option (b) swaps the two Supreme Court cases. Option (c) swaps the Kamra petition and Section 69A. Option (d) wrongly links Shreya Singhal with the fact-check unit. Value addition: the Supreme Court stayed the notification of the fact-check unit on 21 March 2024.

Answer: (d) Explanation: Statement (d) is not correct. The grounds in Article 19(2) are sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation and incitement to an offence. Sedition is not among them. The draft article of 1948 listed sedition, but the Constituent Assembly removed it in December 1948. Statement (a) is correct because both grounds are listed. Statement (b) is correct, as the 2021 Rules were framed under Section 87(2) of the IT Act and replaced the 2011 Rules. Statement (c) is correct, since these are the grievance timelines for intermediaries. Value addition: the word “reasonable” entered Article 19(2) only through the First Amendment in 1951.

Answer: (b) Explanation: The Union Home Ministry imposed the curbs for 15 days from 17 August 2012. Rumours of revenge attacks after violence in Assam had made many people from the Northeast leave Bengaluru, Pune and other cities. Under the order, no one could send more than five SMS at one go. Option (a) is too short and option (d) too long for the official period. Option (c) is a trap, because 30 is the date in August on which the curbs were finally withdrawn, not the number of days. Value addition: the cap was relaxed to 20 SMS a day from 23 August 2012, before the full withdrawal on 30 August 2012.

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement (i) is correct. The Prime Minister named 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030 at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021. Statement (ii) is correct. The updated NDC, approved by the Cabinet on 3 August 2022, targets about 50 per cent non-fossil share of cumulative installed electric power capacity by 2030. Statement (iii) is wrong because the updated NDC sets a 45 per cent cut in emissions intensity of GDP from the 2005 level. The 33 to 35 per cent figure belongs to the original 2015 NDC. Value addition: India reached the 50 per cent non-fossil share in June 2025, five years ahead of 2030. The NDC for 2031-35 sets 47 per cent and 60 per cent goals for 2035.

Answer: (a) Explanation: The COP26 statement came on 1 November 2021 in Glasgow. The Cabinet then approved the updated NDC on 3 August 2022. The National Green Hydrogen Mission followed on 4 January 2023. PM Surya Ghar was approved last, on 29 February 2024. So the order is (ii), (iv), (i), (iii). Option (b) puts the NDC before COP26, which is wrong because the NDC update turned the Glasgow pledges into targets. Option (c) puts the Hydrogen Mission before the NDC, but the mission was approved in 2023, after the 2022 NDC. Option (d) starts with the Hydrogen Mission, which cannot be the earliest. Value addition: the Hydrogen Mission has an outlay of Rs 19,744 crore, and Surya Ghar has Rs 75,021 crore.

Answer: (a) Explanation: The mission targets a green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) a year by 2030. The newspaper report gives the same target as 50 lakh tonnes, which equals 5 MMT. Option (b), 10 MMT, is wrong because it doubles the official target. Option (c) is wrong because it mistakes 50 lakh tonnes for 50 MMT, a ten-fold error. Option (d), 0.5 MMT, reads 50 lakh tonnes as 5 lakh tonnes and is far below the target. Value addition: the Cabinet approved the mission on 4 January 2023 with an outlay of Rs 19,744 crore. Of this, Rs 17,490 crore is for the SIGHT (Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition) programme.

Answer: (c) Explanation: The Assam government notified the Solar Power Promotion Policy 2025 with a target of at least 3,500 MW of solar capacity by 2030. The policy stays valid until 31 March 2030. The nodal agency is Assam Power Distribution Company Ltd (APDCL). Options (a), (b) and (d) are wrong because they are not the figure stated in the policy. 1,200 MW and 2,500 MW understate the target. 5,000 MW overstates it. Value addition: the policy covers ground-mounted and floating solar, rooftop solar and battery energy storage. It also allows agri-voltaics, and it permits solar on tea estate land up to 5 per cent of the landholding.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements (i) and (ii) are correct. PM-SETU has a total outlay of Rs 60,000 crore. Of this, Rs 30,000 crore is from the Centre, Rs 20,000 crore from States and Rs 10,000 crore from industry. Component I upgrades 1,000 Government ITIs through a hub-and-spoke model, with 200 Hubs and 800 Spokes. Statement (iii) is wrong. The proposed SPV gives 51% to the Anchor Industry Partner, while the Centre and the State hold 24.5% each. Options (a), (c) and (d) fail because they drop a true statement or include the false one. Value addition: the Union Cabinet approved the scheme on 7 May 2025. The Asian Development Bank and the World Bank are to co-finance half of the Central share.

Answer: (d) Explanation: Option (d) is the answer. A Global Skill Center was only discussed as a vision of the Assam Government, and the report does not say any centre was inaugurated. Option (a) did happen, because the MoU is meant to set up a Sectoral Industry Integrated Centre in the State. Option (b) did happen, because letters of intent, not final sanctions, were exchanged for the two clusters. Option (c) did happen, because NRL and OIL are to support the clusters under PM-SETU. Value addition: Guwahati is also one of the seven Skill India International Centres, which give language training and pre-departure orientation to youth seeking overseas jobs.

Answer: (c) Explanation: ITIs are under the administrative and financial control of State Governments and Union Territory administrations. That is why States lead the selection of ITIs under PM-SETU. Option (a) is wrong because MSDE sets national direction and runs the scheme, but does not manage ITIs directly. Option (b) is wrong because the Directorate General of Training is the apex body for policies, norms, curriculum, affiliation, instructor training and trade testing. It does not run ITIs. Option (d) is wrong because the National Skill Development Corporation is a skilling agency, not the controlling authority of ITIs. Value addition: ITIs offer courses under the Craftsmen Training Scheme, lasting six months to two years.

Answer: (a) Explanation: The correct pairs are NSTI Chennai with Singapore, NSTI Kanpur with France, NSTI Bhubaneswar with Australia and NSTI Hyderabad with Germany. MoUs were signed with Singapore, France and Australia for the first three. For Hyderabad, a Joint Declaration of Intent was exchanged with Germany. Option (b) swaps the partners of Chennai and Kanpur. Option (c) swaps the partners of Bhubaneswar and Hyderabad. Option (d) gets every pair wrong. Value addition: the five NSTIs under PM-SETU are at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur and Ludhiana. Each is to host a sector-specific National Centre of Excellence.