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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) – 02/11/2026

By Amit BiswakarmaPublished 8 min read
These MCQs come from today’s Assam Tribune notes:Full Assam Tribune notes →Only today’s answer writing →
In this post
  1. APSC Prelims MCQs
    1. Topic 1: Bullet Train Northern Corridor extended to Guwahati
    2. Topic 2: Makhana Cultivation in Assam’s Wetlands
    3. Topic 3: World Bank Poverty and Equity Brief on India’s Extreme Poverty
    4. Topic 4: Civilian Arms Licensing and Assam’s Special Scheme

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (02-11-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC Prelims MCQs

From The Assam Tribune, 2 November 2026

Topic 1: Bullet Train Northern Corridor extended to Guwahati

Q1. The Railway Minister has announced approval of a bullet train Northern Corridor extending to Guwahati. Consider the following statements:

(i) The corridor begins in Delhi.

(ii) The corridor was originally meant to end at Varanasi.

(iii) The route includes Patna and Siliguri.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) (i) only
  • (b) (i) and (iii) only
  • (c) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer

Answer: (b) Explanation: The corridor begins in Delhi and passes Patna and Siliguri. Statement (ii) is wrong because it was first meant to end at Siliguri. Varanasi is only a stop on the way.

Q2. Consider the following statements about the land link between the Northeast and the rest of India:

(i) The Siliguri Corridor lies in West Bengal.

(ii) The Siliguri Corridor lies wholly inside Assam.

(iii) In February 2026, the Railway Minister said underground lines have been planned. They are for a strategic section of about 40 km linking the Northeast with the rest of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) (i) and (ii) only
  • (b) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (c) (i) and (iii) only
  • (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer

Answer: (c) Explanation: The Siliguri Corridor is a narrow strip in West Bengal, so (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong. Statement (iii) is correct: the Minister spoke of special planning, including underground lines, for a strategic section of about 40 km.

Q3. Match List-I with List-II:

List-IList-II
a. Headquarters of Northeast Frontier Railway1. Siliguri
b. Starting point of the Northern Corridor2. 12
c. Original end point of the Northern Corridor3. Maligaon
d. Number of stations planned on the Mumbai-Ahmedabad line4. Delhi

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • (a) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
  • (b) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
  • (c) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
  • (d) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
Show answer

Answer: (b) Explanation: NFR is headquartered at Maligaon, and the corridor starts in Delhi. It was first meant to end at Siliguri, and the Mumbai-Ahmedabad line has 12 planned stations. Every other code swaps at least one pair.

Q4. Which of the following cities is NOT named as a stop on the Northern bullet train corridor announced for extension to Guwahati?

  • (a) Ayodhya
  • (b) Prayagraj
  • (c) Bhubaneswar
  • (d) Kanpur
Show answer

Answer: (c) Explanation: The route runs from Delhi through Agra, Kanpur, Lucknow, Ayodhya, Varanasi, Prayagraj, Patna and Siliguri to Guwahati. Bhubaneswar is not on it.

Topic 2: Makhana Cultivation in Assam’s Wetlands

Q5. Makhana is being promoted as a new crop for Assam’s wetlands. Consider the following statements:

(i) Its botanical name is Euryale ferox.

(ii) Mithila Makhana of Bihar has a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

(iii) The field method needs water about three metres deep.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) (i) and (ii) only
  • (b) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (c) (i) and (iii) only
  • (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer

Answer: (a) Explanation: Makhana is Euryale ferox, and Mithila Makhana has a GI tag. Statement (iii) is wrong. The field method needs only about 1 to 1.5 feet of water. Three metres is the need of the traditional system.

Q6. Match List-I with List-II (makhana cultivation in Assam):

List-IList-II
a. Water depth in the field method1. About 3 metres
b. Water needed in the traditional system2. 1 to 1.5 feet
c. Water surface to be kept open3. 10-20 per cent
d. Estimated natural makhana area in Assam4. 40,000 to 50,000 hectares

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • (a) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
  • (b) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
  • (c) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
  • (d) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Show answer

Answer: (a) Explanation: The field method needs 1 to 1.5 feet of water. The traditional system needs about 3 metres. About 10-20 per cent of the surface should stay open, and the natural area is estimated at 40,000 to 50,000 hectares. Option (b) swaps the two depths, and the other codes mix up the figures.

Q7. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  • (a) Makhana leaves grow widely in Deepor Beel Wildlife Sanctuary between February and April.
  • (b) Preliminary studies in 2012 found 50-60 tonnes of makhana seeds harvested yearly from about 10,000 hectares in Jorhat, Sivasagar and Dibrugarh.
  • (c) Deepor Beel was designated a Ramsar site on 19 August 2002.
  • (d) The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 were notified under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Show answer

Answer: (d) Explanation: The Wetlands Rules, 2017 were notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The other three statements are correct.

Q8. Which body, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, was launched at Purnea in Bihar on 15 September 2025 to support the makhana sector?

  • (a) National Horticulture Board
  • (b) National Makhana Board
  • (c) Spices Board
  • (d) National Bamboo Mission
Show answer

Answer: (b) Explanation: The National Makhana Board was announced in Budget 2025-26. The Prime Minister launched it at Purnea, Bihar, on 15 September 2025. The National Horticulture Board and the Spices Board are older bodies with a wider remit, and the National Bamboo Mission deals with bamboo.

Topic 3: World Bank Poverty and Equity Brief on India’s Extreme Poverty

Q9. An Assam Tribune editorial discusses the World Bank’s October 2026 Poverty and Equity Brief on India. Consider the following statements about the brief’s figures as quoted in the editorial:

(i) The extreme poverty line used is $3.00 per day at 2021 purchasing power parity.

(ii) India’s extreme poverty rate dropped from 27.1% in 2011 to 2.6% in 2023.

(iii) The share of people below $4.20 per day dropped from 57.7% in 2011 to 12.1% in 2023.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) (i) only
  • (b) (i) and (ii) only
  • (c) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements (i) and (ii) are correct. In (iii), the 2023 figure was 16.1%. The 12.1% figure is the projection for 2028.

Q10. Assertion (A): Since the June 2025 update, the World Bank’s international poverty line is $3.00 per person per day. Reason (R): The line is the median of the national poverty lines of low-income countries, converted with 2021 PPPs and rounded.

  • (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Show answer

Answer: (a) Explanation: The median of those national lines is $3.04. Rounded to the nearest 10 cents, it gives $3.00. So R explains A. The older $2.15 line was based on 2017 PPPs.

Q11. According to the World Bank brief discussed in the Assam Tribune editorial, which one of the following was NOT named as a main reason for the fall in India’s poverty?

  • (a) Strong consumption growth
  • (b) Rising employment, especially among women
  • (c) Wider social transfers, including food subsidies
  • (d) A sharp fall in income inequality
Show answer

Answer: (d) Explanation: The brief names (a), (b) and (c) as the main drivers. On inequality it says the opposite: the richest 10% still earn 13 times more than the poorest 10%.

Q12. Which one of the following is the World Bank poverty line for lower-middle-income economies after the June 2025 update?

  • (a) $2.15 per day
  • (b) $3.65 per day
  • (c) $4.20 per day
  • (d) $8.30 per day
Show answer

Answer: (c) Explanation: The lower-middle-income line rose from $3.65 to $4.20. $2.15 was the old extreme poverty line. $8.30 is the upper-middle-income line.

PYQ (APSC Prelims 2024): As per the NITI Aayog’s multi-dimensional poverty index (as per the latest statistics for 2022–23), the percentage of population in Assam classified as poor is:

  • (A) 36.97%
  • (B) 26.37%
  • (C) 14.47%
  • (D) 13.73%
Show answer

Answer: (C) Explanation: NITI Aayog’s discussion paper ‘Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06’ (January 2024) estimated that the share of Assam’s population living in multidimensional poverty fell from 36.97% in 2013-14 to 14.47% in 2022-23. Over 80 lakh people in Assam moved out of multidimensional poverty during these nine years. Note that the 2022-23 state figures are projections based on the trend between NFHS rounds, not a fresh survey.

Topic 4: Civilian Arms Licensing and Assam’s Special Scheme

Q13. Consider the following statements about civilian gun licensing in India:

(i) Under Section 17 of the Arms Act, 1959, a licensing authority can vary, suspend or revoke a licence in certain cases.

(ii) Assam’s 2025 special arms-licensing scheme is based on a separate Assam arms law.

(iii) The Gauhati High Court held in August 2026 that nobody has a fundamental right to get or renew a gun licence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) (i) only
  • (b) (i) and (iii) only
  • (c) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Show answer

Answer: (b) Explanation: (i) and (iii) are correct. (ii) is wrong because the scheme uses the central Arms Act, 1959 and the Arms Rules, 2016, not a state law.

Q14. Match List-I (Section of the Arms Act, 1959) with List-II (Subject):

List-I (Section)List-II (Subject)
a. Section 131. Duration and renewal of licence
b. Section 142. Variation, suspension and revocation of licence
c. Section 153. Grant of licence
d. Section 174. Refusal of licence

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • (a) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
  • (b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
  • (c) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
  • (d) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
Show answer

Answer: (c) Explanation: Section 13 is grant and Section 14 is refusal. Section 15 deals with duration and renewal. Section 17 covers variation, suspension and revocation. Option (a) swaps grant and refusal, a common trap.

Q15. Consider the following statements:

(i) Applications under Assam’s special arms-licensing scheme are taken through the Sewa Setu portal, which went live on 14 August 2025.

(ii) Article 21 of the Constitution gives a fundamental right to own a gun.

(iii) Article 14 guards against arbitrary State action.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None
Show answer

Answer: (b) Explanation: (i) and (iii) are correct. (ii) is wrong because neither Article 14 nor Article 21 gives a fundamental right to hold a gun. A licence is only a statutory privilege.

Q16. Which of the following statements about Assam’s special arms-licensing scheme is NOT correct?

  • (a) The Assam Cabinet approved it in May 2025.
  • (b) It is meant for eligible indigenous people living in remote and vulnerable areas.
  • (c) It is run under the Arms Act, 1959 and the Arms Rules, 2016.
  • (d) The State government supplies firearms to the selected applicants.
Show answer

Answer: (d) Explanation: The State gives only licences, not weapons, as the Chief Minister said at the portal launch. Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

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