APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –28/07/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (28-07-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 28/07/2026)

1. With reference to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 and the proposed Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:

The law applies to notified public examinations conducted by designated authorities.
The Amendment Bill proposes completion of investigations into paper leak cases within two months.
The Amendment Bill proposes a maximum imprisonment of three years for organised examination fraud.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Organised examination fraud attracts a minimum of 7 years’ imprisonment (not a maximum of 3 years), along with stringent penalties.

Q2. Which one of the following constitutional provisions provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law?

A. Article 19(1)(g)
B. Article 21
C. Article 300A
D. Article 32

Answer: C

Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right and inserted Article 300A, making it a constitutional legal right.

Q3. Consider the following diseases:

Cholera
Typhoid
Hepatitis E
Malaria

Which of the above are primarily water-borne diseases?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: Cholera, typhoid and Hepatitis E spread mainly through contaminated water. Malaria is a vector-borne disease transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes.

Q4. With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:

It functions as India’s disease surveillance and early warning system.
It is implemented under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
It primarily focuses only on vector-borne diseases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: IDSP monitors outbreaks of multiple communicable diseases, not just vector-borne diseases.

Q5. Consider the following pairs:

Disease	Vector
1. Malaria	Female Anopheles mosquito
2. Dengue	Aedes aegypti mosquito
3. Japanese Encephalitis	Culex mosquito

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: C

Explanation: All three disease-vector pairs are correctly matched and are frequently asked in UPSC/APSC examinations.

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR):

It is India’s apex biomedical research organization.
It functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
It was established after Independence in 1950.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: ICMR was established in 1911 (as IRFA) and renamed in 1949, not in 1950.

Q7. Which one of the following is NOT an official category under the IUCN Red List?

A. Near Threatened (NT)
B. Data Deficient (DD)
C. Not Evaluated (NE)
D. Protected (PR)

Answer: D

Explanation: “Protected” is not an IUCN Red List category. Official categories include EX, EW, CR, EN, VU, NT, LC, DD and NE.

Q8. The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) is primarily responsible for:

A. Regulating wildlife trade in India
B. Survey, documentation and taxonomic study of India’s plant diversity
C. Declaring Biosphere Reserves
D. Monitoring air pollution

Answer: B

Explanation: BSI is India’s premier institution for plant taxonomy, floristic surveys and botanical documentation.

Q9. Which one of the following best describes a herbarium?

A. A protected area for endangered plants
B. A collection of preserved plant specimens used for scientific study
C. A botanical garden meant only for medicinal plants
D. A gene bank storing animal tissues

Answer: B

Explanation: A herbarium is a scientific repository of preserved plant specimens used in taxonomy and biodiversity research.

Q10. Northeast India is globally recognized for its biodiversity because it forms part of which one of the following biodiversity hotspots?

A. Mediterranean Basin
B. Indo-Burma
C. Caucasus
D. Tropical Andes

Answer: B

Explanation: Northeast India is part of the Indo-Burma Biodiversity Hotspot, one of the world’s richest biodiversity regions.

Q11. With reference to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

It replaced the Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
It introduced provisions relating to Rehabilitation and Resettlement (R&R).
It seeks greater transparency in land acquisition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: All three are key features of the 2013 Act.

Q12. Which of the following programmes aims at modernisation and digitisation of land records in India?

A. PM Gati Shakti
B. Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP)
C. BharatNet
D. National Rural Livelihood Mission

Answer: B

Explanation: DILRMP aims to modernise land records through digitisation, GIS mapping and computerisation.

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding post-flood disease outbreaks:

Floodwaters may contaminate drinking water with sewage.
Stagnant water after floods promotes mosquito breeding.
Chlorination of drinking water sources helps reduce the risk of water-borne diseases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: All three are scientifically established post-flood public health measures and were emphasized in the ICMR advisory.

Q14. Which of the following statements best explains the term microhabitat, often used in biodiversity conservation?

A. A protected forest notified under the Wildlife (Protection) Act.
B. A small area within a larger habitat possessing unique environmental conditions suitable for a particular species.
C. A wildlife corridor connecting two protected areas.
D. A man-made ecosystem developed for conservation.

Answer: B

Explanation: A microhabitat is a localized environment with specific ecological conditions that support particular organisms, especially rare or specialized species.

Q15. Consider the following statements:

Assam is part of the Indo-Burma Biodiversity Hotspot.
Rediscovery of a species after a long interval necessarily means it has been removed from the IUCN Red List.
Species with extremely restricted populations are generally more vulnerable to habitat disturbances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Rediscovery of a species does not automatically alter its IUCN status; it must undergo scientific assessment before any classification or reclassification.

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