APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –14/10/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (14-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 14/10/2026)
Topic 1: Assam–Arunachal Pradesh Inter-State Boundary Dispute: Bilateral Resolution Mechanisms
Q1. With reference to inter-State border disputes in India and the Assam–Arunachal Pradesh border, consider the following statements:
- The genesis of the Assam–Arunachal Pradesh boundary issue is linked to the 1951 Gopinath Bordoloi Sub-Committee recommendations regarding the transfer of foothill plains.
- The Namsai Declaration signed between Assam and Arunachal Pradesh restricted the active dispute to 123 border villages.
- Article 131 of the Constitution vests appellate jurisdiction in the High Courts to adjudicate boundary disputes between adjoining Indian States.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Bordoloi Sub-Committee transferred roughly 3,648 sq. km from the erstwhile NEFA to Assam, which Arunachal contested; the 2022 Namsai Declaration subsequently narrowed the boundary dispute down to 123 villages.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 131, the Supreme Court of India has original and exclusive jurisdiction (not High Courts) in legal disputes between two or more States.
Q2. With reference to the Survey of India, which is responsible for demarcating undisputed inter-state boundaries, consider the following statements:
- It functions as the National Mapping Agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India, established during the British colonial period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Survey of India functions under the Department of Science and Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology (not the Ministry of Home Affairs).
- Statement 2 is correct: Set up in 1767, it is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India.
Q3. Consider the following pairs of bordering districts involved in recent bilateral border reconciliation talks:
| Border District in Assam | Border District in Arunachal Pradesh |
| 1. Biswanath | Papum Pare |
| 2. Lakhimpur | Papum Pare |
| 3. Cachar | Changlang |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) All three pairs
- (d) None of the pairs
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched: The recent bilateral border talks involved demarcating boundaries between Arunachal Pradesh’s Papum Pare district and Assam’s Biswanath and Lakhimpur districts.
- Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Cachar shares borders with Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Manipur—it does not share a border with Arunachal Pradesh (Changlang borders Tinsukia and Charaideo).
Q4. With reference to the constitutional mechanisms for resolving inter-State disputes in India, consider the following statements:
- An Inter-State Council established under Article 263 delivers decisions that are legally binding upon all disputing state governments.
- The President of India is empowered to establish an Inter-State Council if public interest would be served thereby.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Inter-State Council (Article 263) is strictly an advisory and consultative body; its recommendations and inquiries are not legally binding awards.
- Statement 2 is correct: Article 263 explicitly empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into, advise upon, and discuss inter-state subjects.
Topic 2: Semiconductor Ecosystem and Industrial Transition in Assam
Q5. With reference to the semiconductor manufacturing supply chain, what is the primary difference between a ‘Wafer Fabrication Facility’ (Fab) and an ‘Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test’ (OSAT) facility?
- (a) A Fab unit writes the software architecture of chips, whereas an OSAT unit extracts raw silicon from quartz.
- (b) A Fab prints microscopic integrated circuits onto raw silicon wafers, whereas an OSAT packages, dices, and tests those fabricated chips for commercial devices.
- (c) A Fab manufactures display panels, while an OSAT designs printed circuit boards (PCBs).
- (d) A Fab is exclusively government-owned, while OSAT operations are strictly restricted to private foreign enterprises.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Wafer Fabrication (front-end manufacturing) involves printing microscopic integrated circuits on silicon wafers. An OSAT/ATMP facility (back-end manufacturing, such as the Tata facility in Jagiroad, Assam) takes those processed wafers, dices them into individual chips, packages them with protective layers, and rigorously tests them before end-use.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
- It is a dedicated business division established within the Digital India Corporation.
- It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
- Under the Modified Semicon India Programme, the Central Government provides financial fiscal support of up to 50% on a pari-passu basis for approved OSAT and Fab projects.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- All three statements are correct: ISM was launched within the Digital India Corporation under MeitY to execute the Semicon India Programme, which provides uniform 50% fiscal capital support across semiconductor fabs, display fabs, compound semiconductors, and ATMP/OSAT facilities.
Q7. With reference to recent industrial developments in Assam, the greenfield semiconductor assembly and testing facility by Tata Electronics is situated at which of the following locations?
- (a) Numaligarh, Golaghat
- (b) Jagiroad, Morigaon
- (c) Amingaon, Kamrup Rural
- (d) Matia, Goalpara
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Tata Electronics is constructing its ₹27,000 crore semiconductor assembly and test facility at Jagiroad in Morigaon district, Assam, utilizing the site of the defunct Nagaon Paper Mill.
Q8. In the context of semiconductor technology, the term ‘Technology Node’ (such as 28nm or 2nm) primarily refers to:
- (a) The total weight of the encapsulated silicon chip
- (b) The geographical coordinates of semiconductor manufacturing parks
- (c) The physical feature size and density of transistors fabricated on a microchip
- (d) The storage latency of dynamic random-access memory
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- In microelectronics, the technology node refers to the specific generation of semiconductor manufacturing process and transistor gate dimensions. A smaller nanometer (nm) node packs more transistors onto a die, boosting computational processing speed and energy efficiency.
Topic 3: BIMSTEC Security Architecture and Transnational Crime in the Neighbourhood
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC):
- It was founded in 1997 through the adoption of the Bangkok Declaration.
- Its permanent Secretariat is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
- India is the designated Lead Country for the ‘Security’ sector among member states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 3 are correct: BIMSTEC was founded in 1997 via the Bangkok Declaration, and under its reorganized pillar structure, India serves as the Lead Country for the Security Sector.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The permanent Secretariat of BIMSTEC is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh (not Colombo).
Q10. With reference to global illicit narcotics trafficking routes impacting India’s internal security, consider the following statements:
- The ‘Golden Triangle’ region comprises the confluence of borders of Myanmar, Thailand, and Laos.
- The ‘Golden Crescent’ comprises Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Iran.
- Northeast India is particularly vulnerable to synthetic drugs and heroin smuggled primarily from the Golden Crescent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Golden Triangle spans Myanmar, Thailand, and Laos, while the Golden Crescent covers Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Northeast India shares a long, porous border with Myanmar and is therefore directly exposed to drug syndicates operating from the Golden Triangle (not the Golden Crescent).
Q11. Which among the following nations is a member of SAARC but NOT a member of BIMSTEC?
- (a) Bhutan
- (b) Myanmar
- (c) Maldives
- (d) Nepal
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- BIMSTEC comprises Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. Maldives (along with Pakistan and Afghanistan) is a member of SAARC but does not belong to BIMSTEC. Myanmar is in BIMSTEC, but not in SAARC.
Q12. The first-ever BIMSTEC Home Ministers’ Meeting, emphasizing a ‘whole-of-region’ security framework against organized crime and terrorism, was hosted in 2026 by:
- (a) Bangkok
- (b) New Delhi
- (c) Dhaka
- (d) Naypyidaw
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- The inaugural BIMSTEC Home Ministers’ / Senior Officers’ Meeting was held in New Delhi, chaired by Union Home Minister Amit Shah.
Topic 4: Child Rights, Criminal Justice System, and Structural Power Asymmetries (POCSO & JJ Act)
Q13. With reference to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, consider the following statements:
- The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age.
- The penal provisions of the Act are applicable only to female child victims.
- Reporting of offences under Section 19 of the Act is mandatory for any person with knowledge of the abuse, and non-reporting attracts imprisonment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The Act defines a child as any person under 18 years, and Section 19 mandates that any person who has apprehension or knowledge of child abuse must report it to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or local police, failing which they face penal consequences.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The POCSO Act is completely gender-neutral regarding victims; it protects boys, girls, and transgender children alike.
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the institutional machinery under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015:
- The Child Welfare Committee (CWC) functions as a district-level quasi-judicial bench for children in need of care and protection.
- Every police station is mandated to have at least one Child Welfare Police Officer (CWPO) to handle cases involving children.
- The District Child Protection Unit (DCPU) operates under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs to oversee national penitentiaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The CWC is a statutory quasi-judicial body with the powers of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate First Class, and the JJ Act mandates designated Child Welfare Police Officers at every police station.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The DCPU is a district-level administrative entity under the State Child Protection Society / Ministry of Women and Child Development (under Mission Vatsalya), not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Q15. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India explicitly direct or empower the State to make special provisions and safeguard the rights and welfare of children?
- Article 15(3)
- Article 24
- Article 39(f)
- Article 45
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- All four Articles relate directly to child welfare:
- Article 15(3) empowers the State to make special affirmative provisions for women and children.
- Article 24 prohibits child labor in factories, mines, or hazardous occupations.
- Article 39(f) directs the State to secure opportunities for children to develop healthily and protect them against exploitation.
- Article 45 directs the State to provide early childhood care and education for children below six years of age.
Q16. In the context of criminal jurisprudence concerning child victims, the concept of ‘Secondary Victimisation’ most appropriately refers to:
- (a) Direct physical injuries inflicted by an abuser during a second attempted offence
- (b) Psychological harm, trauma, and distress caused to the child by the insensitive procedures of the justice system and society itself
- (c) Financial exploitation of a child’s parents by private investigation agencies
- (d) Revocation of legal aid when the perpetrator belongs to an affluent social background
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Secondary victimisation refers to the additional trauma, psychological harm, and distress experienced by a survivor as a consequence of systemic insensitivity during investigation, repeated court appearances, insensitive interrogations, or breach of identity confidentiality.
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