APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –05/10/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (05-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 05/10/2026)
Topic 1: Election Commission of India: Independence, Removal & Institutional Accountability
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the removal and tenure of members of the Election Commission of India:
- The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
- The Constitution provides a fixed tenure of six years or up to the age of sixty-five years for both the CEC and Election Commissioners.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct under Article 324(5). Statement 3 is incorrect because the tenure of six years or up to 65 years is prescribed by Parliament through statutory law (the 2023 Act), not originally in the Constitution.
Q2. With reference to the constitutional jurisdiction of the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following elections:
- Elections to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
- Elections to State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils
- Elections to Panchayats and Municipalities
- Elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President
The ECI is constitutionally empowered to superintend, direct, and control how many of the elections listed above?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Under Article 324, the ECI conducts elections for Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President (1, 2, and 4). Elections to Panchayats and Municipalities are conducted exclusively by State Election Commissions under Articles 243K and 243ZA.
Q3. Regarding the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
- The Selection Committee is chaired by the Chief Justice of India.
- The Search Committee is headed by the Union Minister of Law and Justice.
- If an Election Commissioner is appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, their total combined tenure cannot exceed six years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister (Chair), the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a nominated Union Cabinet Minister; the CJI is not a member. Statements 2 and 3 are correct provisions of the 2023 Act.
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the institutional safeguards of the Election Commission of India:
- A judicial petition seeking the interim suspension of a sitting CEC operates through the same constitutional threshold as an impeachment motion in Parliament.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are eligible for reappointment to the same office after completing their term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because judicial suspension is an interim relief sought in court, whereas removal is a formal, multi-step constitutional process in Parliament under Article 324(5). Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2023 Act expressly prohibits the reappointment of the CEC and ECs.
Topic 2: Declining Waterbird Population at Loktak Lake: Wetland & Biodiversity Conservation
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Loktak Lake:
- It is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, located in Manipur.
- It is designated as a Ramsar site and is currently listed on the Montreux Record.
- Keibul Lamjao National Park, situated on the lake’s floating phumdis, is the world’s only floating national park.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Loktak (in Bishnupur, Manipur) is the largest freshwater lake in the Northeast. It became a Ramsar site in 1990 and was placed on the Montreux Record in 1993. Keibul Lamjao National Park floats on its southern edge and protects the endangered Sangai deer.
Q6. With reference to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, consider the following statements:
- Under Ramsar Criterion 5, a wetland is considered internationally important if it regularly supports at least 20,000 waterbirds.
- A single annual census recording fewer than 20,000 waterbirds results in the automatic delisting of a wetland from the Ramsar list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Ramsar Criterion 5 uses the benchmark of “regularly” supporting 20,000+ waterbirds; an annual fluctuation or a single drop below the threshold does not mechanically cancel Ramsar designation.
Q7. Consider the following pairs:
| Protected Feature / Species | Ecological Context / Flyway |
| 1. Sangai (Brow-antlered deer) | Endemic flagship species of Keibul Lamjao |
| 2. Phumdis | Heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter |
| 3. Loktak Lake | Intersection of Central Asian and East Asian–Australasian Flyways |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) All three pairs
- (d) None of the pairs
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched. Sangai is endemic to Keibul Lamjao, phumdis are floating masses of soil and organic matter characteristic of Loktak, and the lake is an important stopover at the junction of the Central Asian and East Asian–Australasian Flyways.
Q8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Montreux Record?
- (a) It is a global inventory of wetlands that have completely recovered from human interference.
- (b) It is a register of Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur.
- (c) Any wetland placed on the Montreux Record loses its status as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance.
- (d) In India, Chilika Lake and Loktak Lake are the only two wetlands currently listed on the Montreux Record.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Montreux Record is a register of Ramsar sites experiencing negative ecological changes due to technological developments, pollution, or human interference. Chilika Lake was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002 after successful ecological restoration; currently, Loktak Lake and Keoladeo National Park are on it.
Topic 3: Orang National Park: Conservation, Tourism and Protected-Area Management in Assam
Q9. With reference to Orang National Park and Tiger Reserve, consider the following chronological stages of its legal status:
- Wildlife Sanctuary
- Game Reserve
- Tiger Reserve
- National Park
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the declarations above, from earliest to latest?
- (a) 2 — 1 — 4 — 3
- (b) 1 — 2 — 4 — 3
- (c) 2 — 4 — 1 — 3
- (d) 1 — 4 — 2 — 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Orang was notified as a Game Reserve in 1915, upgraded to a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1985, declared a National Park in 1999, and notified as India’s 49th Tiger Reserve in 2016.
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the geographic and ecological landscape of Orang:
- It is situated on the south bank of the Brahmaputra River across Golaghat and Nagaon districts.
- It forms part of an approximately 180-km riverine corridor connecting Orang, Burhachapori, and Kaziranga.
- The landscape supports significant populations of the Greater One-horned Rhinoceros and the Royal Bengal Tiger.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because Orang is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River, spanning Darrang and Sonitpur districts.
Q11. In the context of protected area administration in India, consider the following statements regarding Tiger Reserves:
- The core or critical tiger habitat is notified under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and is kept inviolate from commercial forestry and destructive human activities.
- The buffer area aims to promote an exclusively human-free zone with zero community settlement.
- In Orang Tiger Reserve, the buffer area is larger than its notified core national park area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct (Orang’s core area is ~79.28 sq km while the buffer is ~413.18 sq km). Statement 2 is incorrect because buffer zones are managed to provide habitat integrity while supporting sustainable coexistence and livelihood activities of local communities, rather than being strictly human-free inviolate zones.
Q12. Consider the following wildlife species:
- Greater One-horned Rhinoceros
- Gangetic Dolphin
- Pygmy Hog
- Lion-tailed Macaque
How many of the species listed above can naturally be found in or around the Orang National Park floodplain habitat?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer: (c)
Explanation: 1, 2, and 3 are naturally found in the grasslands, river channels, and floodplains of Orang. Lion-tailed Macaque (4) is endemic to the evergreen rainforests of the Western Ghats of South India and is not found in Assam.
Topic 4: India–Canada: Fifth Round of CEPA Talks
Q13. What is the fundamental difference between a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) and a Customs Union?
- (a) A CEPA eliminates all internal trade, whereas a Customs Union only regulates trade in services.
- (b) Member countries in a CEPA retain their independent external tariffs toward third countries, whereas members of a Customs Union adopt a common external tariff.
- (c) A CEPA is strictly limited to agricultural commodities, while a Customs Union covers industrial goods.
- (d) A CEPA requires the adoption of a single common currency, whereas a Customs Union does not.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In free trade pacts like a CEPA, signatory countries lower trade barriers among themselves but maintain their own independent customs tariffs against non-member countries. In a Customs Union, members agree on a unified, common external tariff schedule for imports from third countries.
Q14. With reference to the bilateral trade basket between India and Canada, consider the following statements:
- India has traditionally maintained a substantial merchandise trade surplus with Canada.
- Pulses, coal, and fertilizers are among the major items India imports from Canada.
- Pharmaceuticals, textiles, and iron and steel constitute major Indian export products to Canada.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because India runs a goods-trade deficit with Canada (import value exceeds export value).
Q15. In international trade negotiations, the term “Rules of Origin” is frequently discussed. What is its primary objective?
- (a) To determine the original market price of manufactured commodities before local taxes.
- (b) To establish whether an imported product genuinely originates from a partner country to prevent trade deflection from third parties.
- (c) To enforce mandatory intellectual property rights across all developing nations.
- (d) To fix currency exchange rates for cross-border investments.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Rules of Origin are criteria used to establish the national source of a product. They ensure that preferential tariff benefits under a trade pact are granted only to goods produced in partner countries, preventing non-member nations from routing goods through a partner simply to avoid higher duties (trade deflection).
Q16. Consider the following items:
- Lithium and Cobalt
- Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures
- Temporary movement of independent professionals and intra-corporate transferees
How many of the above typically form part of modern Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) discussions between advanced economies and India?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three are central elements. Critical minerals (Lithium/Cobalt) are prioritized for clean energy supply chains, SPS measures represent important regulatory/non-tariff provisions, and mobility provisions for skilled professionals are central to services trade chapters.
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