APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –02/10/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (02-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
APSC CCE Courses
APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 02/10/2026)
Topic 1: 1500-Year-Old Archaeological Remains Found in Hailakandi
1. With reference to the ancient monuments and heritage protection framework in India, consider the following statements:
- (a) Under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958, an ancient monument must have been in existence for not less than 1,000 years.
- (b) The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) functions as an attached office under the Union Ministry of Culture.
- (c) The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972 mandates the state acquisition of all privately held historical artifacts without compensation.
- (d) Only structures built during or before the Gupta period qualify for central protection under the AMASR Act.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: ASI was established in 1861 and is an attached office under the Ministry of Culture. Under the AMASR Act, 1958, an ancient monument requires a statutory threshold of at least 100 years of existence, not 1,000 years. The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972 regulates trade and export to prevent smuggling, rather than seizing all private artifacts without due process.
2. Consider the following pairs:
| Archaeological Site | Region / State | Major Historical / Artistic Association |
| 1. Unakoti | Tripura | Colossal rock-cut Shaivite sculptures and reliefs |
| 2. Pilak | Tripura | Mounds and sculptures with Hindu and Buddhist traditions |
| 3. Kahampara | Barak Valley, Assam | Sculptures reflecting Gupta–Pala stylistic traditions |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three pairs are correct. Unakoti in Tripura is protected by the ASI and is known for its Shaivite rock reliefs. Pilak in southern Tripura preserves both Hindu and Buddhist cultural remains. Kahampara in Hailakandi (Barak Valley) recently revealed stone sculptures with reported Gupta–Pala stylistic linkages.
3. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The discovery of stone sculptures displaying Gupta–Pala characteristics in Hailakandi provides definitive evidence that the Barak Valley was directly ruled by the Imperial Guptas.
Statement-II: Regional stylistic similarities in iconography and art often reflect trade networks and cultural diffusion rather than direct sovereign political control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect because artistic and iconographic influence does not equal direct dynastic sovereignty or administrative rule. Statement-II is correct: artistic trends frequently travelled along river corridors, trade routes, and monastic circuits.
4. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a direct bearing on the conservation and preservation of cultural heritage and monuments?
- Article 29(1)
- Article 49
- Article 51A(f)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 29(1) protects the right of citizens to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture. Article 49 (DPSP) obligates the State to protect monuments and places of artistic or historical interest declared to be of national importance. Article 51A(f) lists valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture as a Fundamental Duty.
Topic 2: ‘Master Mahout’ Recognition to Two Mahouts from Manas
5. With reference to Manas National Park, consider the following statements:
- It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan, forming a transboundary conservation landscape.
- It holds the multiple designations of a UNESCO World Heritage Site, a Tiger Reserve, and a Biosphere Reserve.
- The Manas River flows directly through the core of the park and serves as an important tributary of the Brahmaputra.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Manas forms a contiguous international landscape with Bhutan’s Royal Manas National Park, holds UNESCO World Heritage Site status (inscribed in 1985), functions as a Tiger and Biosphere Reserve, and is drained by the transboundary Manas River.
6. Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Elephant (Elephas maximus):
- It is categorized as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
- Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1991–92 that includes the welfare of captive elephants within its mandate.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Asian Elephant is listed under Appendix I of CITES and Project Elephant was launched in 1991–92 by MoEFCC covering wild habitat conservation and captive elephant welfare. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Asian Elephant is classified as Endangered, not Critically Endangered, on the IUCN Red List.
7. In the context of captive animal management and wildlife training, the term “positive reinforcement” most appropriately refers to:
- (a) Using physical restraints and negative stimulus to eliminate unpredictable aggressive responses.
- (b) Providing rewarding stimuli to encourage and strengthen desired behaviors naturally without coercion.
- (c) Administering hormonal therapy to alter the reproductive cycles and temperament of wild species.
- (d) Conditioning animals through social isolation to make them entirely dependent on their human handlers.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Positive reinforcement is a humane, science-based behavioral method where an animal is presented with a reward (such as food treats or gentle praise) upon performing a desirable behavior, thereby reinforcing that behavior without fear or physical pain.
8. Consider the following Elephant Reserves:
- Chirang-Ripu
- Sonitpur
- Dihing-Patkai
- Dhansiri-Lungding
How many of the above are notified Elephant Reserves situated in the State of Assam?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All four are notified Elephant Reserves in Assam. Chirang-Ripu encompasses the Manas landscape; Sonitpur, Dihing-Patkai, and Dhansiri-Lungding form vital elephant habitats and inter-state corridors in upper and central Assam.
Topic 3: Assam Scientist’s ‘Waste Assimilator’: Decentralised Biodegradable Waste Management
9. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, at-source segregation is mandatory for waste generators. Which of the following correctly lists the designated segregation streams under the updated framework?
- (a) Biodegradable, Recyclable, and Inert waste
- (b) Wet waste, Dry waste, Sanitary waste, and Special-care waste
- (c) Organic waste, Hazardous chemical waste, and Electronic waste
- (d) Combustible waste, Non-combustible waste, and Kitchen waste
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The updated Solid Waste Management framework establishes a four-stream source segregation protocol: Wet waste (biodegradable), Dry waste (recyclables and non-biodegradable), Sanitary waste (diapers, napkins), and Special-care waste (household hazardous items).
10. With reference to biological waste processing techniques, consider the following statements:
- Aerobic composting relies on oxygen-dependent microorganisms and releases heat, carbon dioxide, and stabilized humus.
- Vermicomposting utilizes earthworms to mechanically fragment organic material, accelerating microbial decomposition into nutrient-rich castings.
- Biomethanation is a strictly aerobic process that prevents the formation of greenhouse gases like methane.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because biomethanation is an anaerobic (oxygen-absent) biological process where microbes break down organic matter to generate biogas, which is primarily composed of methane and carbon dioxide.
11. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Decentralised solid waste processing facilities are critical for reducing municipal carbon footprints and overall municipal management costs.
Statement-II: Processing wet and horticultural waste near the source of generation minimizes secondary transport emissions and prevents leachate contamination at landfill sites.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both statements are correct, and Statement-II directly explains Statement-I. When organic waste is treated at source (decentralized model), waste collection vehicles travel less (reducing fuel emissions), and moisture-rich organic waste does not sit in landfills creating toxic leachate or unmanaged methane emissions.
12. In the context of waste management and circular economy, which of the following processes directly contribute to nutrient cycling in soil?
- Conversion of kitchen wet waste into vermicompost
- Extraction of vermiwash from active vermiculture systems
- Landfilling of unsorted municipal solid waste
- In-situ aerobic decomposition of leaf litter and agricultural crop residues
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (c) 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Items 1, 2, and 4 return organic carbon, nitrogen, and micronutrients directly back into agricultural soils. Item 3 (landfilling mixed waste) breaks the nutrient cycle by locking organic waste under impermeable liners mixed with toxins, preventing soil nutrient replenishment.
Topic 4: Forest Department Urged to Make Tea-Garden Tree Registration Data Public
13. With reference to ‘Trees Outside Forests’ (TOF) in India, consider the following statements:
- TOF encompasses all trees growing on lands outside legally notified or recorded forest areas, such as farmlands, roadsides, and private plantations.
- The biennial India State of Forest Report (ISFR) completely excludes TOF from its national canopy and growing stock assessments.
- Agroforestry systems and tea-garden shade plantations are recognized as important components of TOF.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Forest Survey of India (FSI) systematically maps and calculates tree cover and growing stock of TOF in every biennial India State of Forest Report (ISFR).
14. With reference to the Assam Trees Outside Forest (Sustainable Management) Rules, 2022, consider the following statements:
- The rules were framed and notified under the provisions of the Assam Forest Regulation, 1891.
- The Divisional Forest Officer (DFO) serves as the competent Plantation Registering Authority.
- The registration process mandates digital submission of geo-tagged photographs of the standing tree plantation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three statements are correct. The Assam TOF Rules, 2022 derive their statutory authority from the Assam Forest Regulation, 1891, appoint the jurisdictional DFO as the registering authority, and mandate online registration supported by geo-tagged photos to track and verify non-forest tree resources.
15. In plantation ecology, leguminous shade trees (such as Albizia species / Siris) are cultivated in tea estates primarily to serve which of the following ecological functions?
- Modulating the under-canopy microclimate by moderating temperature and solar irradiance.
- Enriching soil fertility through biological nitrogen fixation and leaf-litter decomposition.
- Minimizing topsoil erosion caused by heavy monsoon downpours.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All three points represent recognized ecological functions of shade trees in tea plantations. Leguminous trees fix atmospheric nitrogen, reduce ground temperatures during peak sunlight, break the force of heavy rains to protect soil structure, and supply organic mulch through leaf fall.
16. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Integrating geo-tagging into non-forest tree inventories significantly improves environmental compliance and curbs illegal felling.
Statement-II: Geo-tagging records precise geographic coordinates, enabling satellite remote sensing and ground inspectors to accurately verify baseline canopy changes over time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the correct operational explanation for Statement-I. When spatial coordinates (geo-tags) are embedded in administrative tree databases, field inspection is made easier and high-resolution satellite imagery can reliably track unauthorized canopy removal.
✨ APSC CCE Courses, 2025-26 offered by SuchitraACS
🔔 Join Our WhatsApp Study Group!
For exclusive access to premium quality content, including study materials, current affairs, MCQs, and model answers for APSC CCE and other Assam competitive exams.
Click here to join: SuchitraACS Study WhatsApp Group
📚 Want to know more about SuchitraACS’s most affordable courses?
Click here to know more: SuchitraACS Courses for APSC CCE and Assam Competitive Examinations
