APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –15/10/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (15-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 15/10/2026)

Topic 1: Human-Elephant Conflict and Landscape-Level Conservation in Assam

Q1. With reference to the Asian Elephant (Elephas maximus) and its conservation framework in India, consider the following statements:

• (a) It is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• (b) It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• (c) Project Elephant is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Central Government with 100% Union funding.
• (d) The state of Assam hosts the single largest population of wild Asian elephants in India.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• The Asian elephant is classified as Endangered (not Vulnerable) on the IUCN Red List.
• It is accorded the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Project Elephant (launched in 1992) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (not a Central Sector Scheme), where funding is shared between the Centre and States (90:10 for Northeastern states).
• Karnataka hosts the highest population of wild Asian elephants in India, followed by Assam.

Q2. Consider the following pairs of Protected Areas and ecological corridors in Assam:

1. Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary — Located on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra River
2. Nameri-Sonai Rupai-Arimora Corridor — Links foothill forests with Brahmaputra riverine grasslands
3. Dehing Patkai National Park — Characterized primarily as an alpine meadow ecosystem

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
• (d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Sonitpur district along the Himalayan foothills on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: The NSA (Nameri-Sonai Rupai-Arimora) corridor provides critical seasonal and foraging connectivity between protected reserves and riverine channels.
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Dehing Patkai National Park is an Assam Valley tropical wet evergreen forest (often called the “Amazon of the East”), not an alpine meadow ecosystem.

Q3. With reference to human-wildlife conflict mitigation in India, what is the primary objective of “Project RE-HAB”?

• (a) Relocating wild carnivores from human settlements to national gene banks.
• (b) Utilizing honey bee boxes along forest fringes to deter elephant incursions into farmlands.
• (c) Providing statutory cash insurance for livestock killed by Schedule I animals.
• (d) Rehabilitating surrendered poachers by employing them as community forest guards.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Project RE-HAB (Reducing Elephant-Human Attacks using Bees) is a sub-mission under the National Honey Mission of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
• It deploys bee boxes as “bee fences” along forest peripheries because elephants are naturally repulsed by the sound and stings of swarming bees, reducing crop raiding without causing biological harm.

Q4. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following provisions directly mandate the protection and improvement of forests and wildlife?

1. Article 48A under the Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Article 51A(g) under the Fundamental Duties
3. Seventh Schedule, Entry 17A of the Concurrent List

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 3 only
• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Article 48A (DPSP) directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
• Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duties) places a duty on every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
• Both provisions, along with transferring “Forests” and “Protection of wild animals and birds” to the Concurrent List (Entries 17A and 17B), were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Topic 2: Digital Pedagogy & Artificial Intelligence in Assam’s School Education

Q5. With reference to the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to achieve universal Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) in primary school by 2025.
2. It mandates that each school teacher participate in at least 50 hours of Continuous Professional Development (CPD) every year.
3. It entirely replaces physical textbooks with adaptive Artificial Intelligence software across all secondary schools.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
• (d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: NEP 2020 prioritizes achieving universal Foundational Literacy and Numeracy in primary schools through dedicated interventions like the NIPUN Bharat Mission.
• Statement 2 is correct: NEP 2020 mandates that every teacher and school head must undergo at least 50 hours of CPD annually for self-improvement and pedagogical upgrading.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: NEP 2020 advocates the integration of digital tools and AI to support teachers, but does not eliminate physical textbooks or replace human instruction.

Q6. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, which of the following obligations is placed on Data Fiduciaries regarding the processing of children’s data?

• (a) Processing data of minors is entirely prohibited across all public and private institutions.
• (b) Prior verifiable consent of the parent or lawful guardian is mandatory before processing any personal data of a child.
• (c) Tracking and behavioral monitoring of children are freely permissible if the software is educational.
• (d) Data Fiduciaries are exempted from all compliance if deploying tools in government schools.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Under Section 9 of the DPDP Act, 2023, a Data Fiduciary must obtain verifiable consent of the parent or lawful guardian before processing any personal data of a child (an individual who has not completed 18 years of age).
• The Act specifically bars Data Fiduciaries from undertaking tracking, behavioral monitoring, or targeted advertising directed at children.

Q7. In the context of school education in India, the “Unified District Information System for Education Plus” (UDISE+) is managed by which of the following?

• (a) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
• (b) NITI Aayog
• (c) Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education
• (d) Pratham Education Foundation

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• UDISE+ is an online data collection system designed, developed, and maintained by the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• It collects comprehensive information from all recognized and unrecognized schools across India regarding infrastructure, enrollment, teachers, and dropout rates. In contrast, the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) is published by the civil society organization Pratham.

Q8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009?

• (a) It was enacted to give effect to Article 21A, inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• (b) It guarantees free and compulsory education to all children until they complete 18 years of age.
• (c) The curriculum and evaluation procedures are strictly determined by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
• (d) It applies only to government schools and completely exempts private unaided institutions from reservations.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, making education a Fundamental Right. The RTE Act was enacted in 2009 to operationalize this right.
• The RTE Act covers children aged 6 to 14 years (not up to 18 years).
• Section 12(1)(c) of the Act mandates a 25% reservation of seats for children belonging to disadvantaged groups and weaker sections even in private unaided schools.

Topic 3: India–Canada Bilateral Engagement and Strategic Priorities

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding trade and economic agreements between nations:

1. A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is broader in scope than a standard Free Trade Agreement, covering services, investment, and intellectual property.
2. An Early Progress Trade Agreement (EPTA) acts as an interim agreement covering select sectors before concluding a full-fledged bilateral trade pact.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: A CEPA is more comprehensive than a traditional FTA; it covers not only trade in goods but also trade in services, investment, government procurement, and intellectual property rights.
• Statement 2 is correct: An EPTA (or Early Harvest Scheme) is negotiated as a confidence-building interim measure to liberalize trade in low-hanging, high-priority sectors while negotiations for a full CEPA continue.

Q10. With reference to India’s civil nuclear cooperation and energy ties, consider the following statements:

1. Canada was the first country to sign a civil nuclear cooperation agreement with India after the 2008 NSG waiver.
2. Cameco Corporation of Canada is a major supplier of natural uranium fuel to India’s nuclear power reactors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: France was the first country to sign a civil nuclear cooperation agreement with India in September 2008 following the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) waiver, followed by the United States and Russia. India and Canada signed their civil nuclear agreement in 2010.
• Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, India’s Department of Atomic Energy signed a commercial contract with Canada’s Cameco for the long-term supply of uranium concentrates to fuel India’s civilian reactors under IAEA safeguards.

Q11. Under the Constitution of India, which Article empowers Parliament to enact legislation for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with another country?

• (a) Article 245
• (b) Article 248
• (c) Article 250
• (d) Article 253

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Article 253 states that notwithstanding anything in the preceding provisions of Chapter I, Part XI, Parliament has the power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or decisions made at any international conference.

Q12. Consider the following international groupings:

1. Group of Seven (G7)
2. Arctic Council
3. Commonwealth of Nations
4. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)

In how many of the above groupings are both India and Canada members?

• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

• G7: Canada is a member; India is not a member (often invited as an outreach partner).
• Arctic Council: Canada is one of the 8 Arctic States (member); India is an Observer state (not a member).
• Commonwealth of Nations: Both India and Canada are full members.
• QUAD: Consists of India, the US, Japan, and Australia; Canada is not a member.
• Therefore, both nations are full members in only one grouping (the Commonwealth of Nations).

Topic 4: West Asian Maritime Security, Energy Corridors, and Diaspora Safety

Q13. Which of the following bodies of water is connected directly to the Persian Gulf by the Strait of Hormuz?

• (a) Red Sea
• (b) Gulf of Aden
• (c) Gulf of Oman
• (d) Bab-el-Mandeb

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow maritime chokepoint lying between Iran and Oman, connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and out into the Arabian Sea.
• Bab-el-Mandeb connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.

Q14. With reference to Indian maritime security initiatives, what is the primary objective of “Operation Sankalp”?

• (a) Evacuating stranded Indian citizens from conflict zones across Sub-Saharan Africa.
• (b) Deploying Indian Navy frontline warships to ensure the safety of Indian-flagged commercial vessels in the Gulf region.
• (c) Interdicting narcotics trafficking in the Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea.
• (d) Providing deep-sea hydrographic survey assistance to island nations in the South Pacific.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• The Indian Navy launched Operation Sankalp in June 2019 in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman following maritime incidents and escalating tensions in the Strait of Hormuz.
• Its objective is to conduct sustained maritime security patrols, provide continuous monitoring, and ensure the safe passage of Indian-flagged merchant vessels through volatile Gulf shipping lanes.

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding the Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR):

1. It was established by the Indian Navy and is hosted at Gurugram, Haryana.
2. It facilitates maritime domain awareness and real-time information sharing regarding non-traditional maritime threats.
3. Only South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) nations are permitted to place International Liaison Officers (ILOs) at the center.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 3 only
• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: IFC-IOR was inaugurated in December 2018 at Gurugram, Haryana, co-located with the Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC).
• Statement 2 is correct: It tracks non-traditional security threats such as piracy, maritime terrorism, armed robbery, and contraband smuggling across the Indian Ocean.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Partner nations worldwide—including the US, UK, France, Australia, Japan, and several Indian Ocean littoral states—have deployed International Liaison Officers (ILOs) to the center; it is not restricted to SAARC members.

Q16. Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following zones measured from the baseline:

1. Territorial Sea — Extends up to 12 nautical miles, over which the coastal State exercises sovereignty subject to the right of innocent passage.
2. Contiguous Zone — Extends up to 24 nautical miles, where the State can exercise control to prevent infringement of customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary laws.
3. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) — Extends up to 200 nautical miles, conferring sovereign rights for exploring and exploiting natural resources.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 3 only
• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Exclusive Economic Zone (Art. 55–57): Extends up to 200 nautical miles from baseline; grants sovereign rights over marine resources while preserving foreign freedoms of navigation and overflight.

All three statements accurately reflect the standard maritime limits and jurisdictional rights codified under UNCLOS:

Territorial Sea (Art. 3): Up to 12 nautical miles from baseline; sovereignty includes airspace, seabed, and subsoil, subject to the right of innocent passage for foreign ships.

Contiguous Zone (Art. 33): Extends up to 24 nautical miles from baseline; permits enforcement of customs, taxation, immigration, and sanitary regulations.

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