APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –10/08/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (10-08-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 10/08/2026)
Topic 1: BrahMos — Indigenous Defence Technology & Defence Exports
Q1. With reference to the BrahMos missile system, consider the following statements:
- BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India and Russia.
- The Indian partner in the BrahMos joint venture is the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- BrahMos follows a ballistic trajectory for most of its flight.
- The missile system has been developed for deployment from multiple platforms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not a ballistic missile. It is an India-Russia joint development involving DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyenia and has land-, sea- and air-launched variants, with submarine capability also developed.
Q2. The term “BrahMos” is derived from the names of which of the following?
A. Brahmaputra and Moskva
B. Brahmaputra and Moscow
C. Brahmani and Moskva
D. Brahmaputra and Volga
Answer: A
Explanation: “BrahMos” combines Brahmaputra of India and Moskva (Moscow) River of Russia. It symbolises the India-Russia technological partnership.
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding cruise missiles:
- Cruise missiles generally remain within the atmosphere during their flight.
- They can use propulsion and guidance during a substantial portion of their flight.
- All cruise missiles necessarily travel at supersonic speeds.
- Terrain-following capability can be incorporated into certain cruise missile systems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Cruise missiles generally fly within the atmosphere and can remain powered/guided for much of their flight. Not all cruise missiles are supersonic; many are subsonic. Certain systems can employ terrain-following techniques.
Q4. With reference to India’s defence exports, consider the following statements:
- The export of BrahMos systems to Southeast Asian countries has a strategic dimension beyond commercial transactions.
- Defence exports can contribute to India’s strategic partnerships and defence diplomacy.
- India’s defence exports are restricted exclusively to countries with which India has a formal military alliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Defence exports can deepen strategic, maritime and technological partnerships. India does not require a formal military alliance with a country for defence cooperation or exports.
Topic 2: Inland Waterways in Assam & Northeast
Q5. With reference to National Waterways in Assam, consider the following pairs:
| National Waterway | River |
| 1. NW-2 | Brahmaputra |
| 2. NW-16 | Barak |
| 3. NW-31 | Dhansiri |
| 4. NW-57 | Kopili |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: D
Explanation: All four pairs are correctly matched. NW-2 (Brahmaputra) and NW-16 (Barak) are particularly important for Assam’s inland-waterway network.
Q6. With reference to National Waterway-2, consider the following statements:
- It is located on the Brahmaputra.
- It extends from the Bangladesh border near Dhubri to Sadiya.
- It is entirely outside the jurisdiction of the Inland Waterways Authority of India.
- Its development is important for multimodal connectivity in Northeast India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: NW-2 is the Brahmaputra waterway from Dhubri to Sadiya and is developed/managed within the institutional framework of IWAI. It is important for multimodal connectivity and regional logistics.
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding inland waterways and the Indo-Bangladesh Protocol Route:
- It can provide an alternative connectivity route for the Northeast.
- It facilitates movement of cargo through designated waterways of India and Bangladesh.
- It can help reduce dependence on road-based movement through the Siliguri Corridor for suitable cargo.
- It eliminates the need for multimodal connectivity between waterways, roads and railways.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: The Indo-Bangladesh Protocol route strengthens alternative connectivity for the Northeast. However, its effectiveness depends precisely on multimodal integration with roads, railways and terminals; it does not eliminate their importance.
Q8. The National Waterways Act, 2016 is significant because it:
A. abolished the Inland Waterways Authority of India and transferred its functions to State Governments
B. declared 111 waterways as National Waterways
C. made all rivers in India automatically navigable for commercial shipping
D. transferred all inland-waterway regulation to the Ministry of Railways
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Waterways Act, 2016 declared 111 inland waterways as National Waterways. IWAI, under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, plays the central role in their development.
Topic 3: Passport Controversy & Citizenship Law
Q9. With reference to citizenship in India, consider the following statements:
- Articles 5 to 11 of the Constitution deal with citizenship.
- Article 11 empowers Parliament to make laws relating to citizenship.
- The Citizenship Act, 1955 derives its constitutional basis partly from Article 11.
- The Constitution permanently and exhaustively determines all aspects of acquisition and termination of citizenship without requiring parliamentary legislation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Articles 5–11 provide the constitutional framework, while Article 11 gives Parliament power to regulate citizenship. The Citizenship Act, 1955 is the principal legislation governing these matters.
Q10. With reference to the Citizenship Act, 1955, consider the following pairs:
| Provision | Subject |
| 1. Section 3 | Citizenship by birth |
| 2. Section 4 | Citizenship by descent |
| 3. Section 5 | Citizenship by registration |
| 4. Section 6 | Citizenship by naturalisation |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: D
Explanation: All four are correctly matched. These provisions form an important static component of the citizenship framework.
Q11. With reference to an Indian passport and citizenship, consider the following statements:
- A passport is primarily a travel document.
- Possession of an Indian passport by itself is necessarily conclusive proof of citizenship in every legal circumstance.
- Citizenship is principally governed by the constitutional and statutory citizenship framework.
- The Passports Act, 1967 and Citizenship Act, 1955 serve different principal purposes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: A passport is primarily a travel document. Citizenship is governed by the Constitution and Citizenship Act. The Passports Act regulates passports/travel documents, while the Citizenship Act governs citizenship.
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding citizenship and fundamental rights in India:
- Article 19 rights are available only to citizens.
- Article 21 is available only to Indian citizens.
- Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment to citizens.
- Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to “any person”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 19 and Article 16 contain citizen-specific protections. Article 14 uses “any person”, and Article 21 protects persons, not only citizens. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Topic 4: IIT Guwahati’s E-Eye — Rapid Detection of Toxicants
Q13. With reference to the “E-Eye” device developed by IIT Guwahati, consider the following statements:
- It uses optical sensing for detecting toxicants.
- It is designed to convert optical responses into digital information.
- Its potential applications include water-quality and environmental monitoring.
- It is designed exclusively for use in centralised laboratories.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: E-Eye is intended to facilitate portable/on-site testing, rather than being restricted to centralised laboratories. Its optical sensing and digital analysis capabilities make environmental monitoring a major potential application.
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding optical sensing technology:
- Optical sensors can detect changes in the interaction of light with matter.
- Absorption, fluorescence and reflectance can form the basis of different optical sensing approaches.
- Optical sensing necessarily requires a large laboratory-based spectrometer.
- Optical sensing can potentially be integrated with digital electronics for field-deployable devices.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Optical sensing can be miniaturised and integrated with electronics. It does not necessarily require large laboratory equipment.
Q15. Consider the following statements about bioaccumulation and biomagnification:
- Bioaccumulation refers to the build-up of a substance within an organism over time.
- Biomagnification refers to increasing concentration of certain substances at successively higher trophic levels.
- Biomagnification can be relevant to persistent contaminants entering aquatic food chains.
- Bioaccumulation and biomagnification are synonymous terms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Bioaccumulation occurs within an organism, whereas biomagnification concerns increasing concentration across trophic levels. They are related but not synonymous.
Q16. With reference to toxicants in water, consider the following statements:
- Arsenic, lead, mercury and cadmium can pose serious health risks when exposure exceeds safe levels.
- The presence of a chemical substance automatically means that the water is toxic irrespective of its concentration.
- Rapid detection of contaminants can support preventive public-health interventions.
- Portable sensors can potentially complement, but do not necessarily eliminate, the need for accredited laboratory analysis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Toxicity depends on factors including concentration, exposure pathway, duration and substance characteristics. Portable devices can enable rapid screening and monitoring, while confirmatory/regulatory testing may still require established laboratory methods.
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