APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –25/08/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (25-08-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 25/08/2026)
Topic 1: Assam–Meghalaya Violence, Inter-State Relations & Cooperative Federalism
Q1. With reference to the Assam–Meghalaya boundary issue, consider the following statements:
- Assam and Meghalaya have identified 12 areas of difference along their boundary.
- The 2022 Assam–Meghalaya agreement sought to resolve all 12 areas of difference in a single settlement.
- The Survey of India has a role in the demarcation process in areas where the two States have reached an agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Assam and Meghalaya identified 12 areas of difference. Their 2022 agreement addressed six areas, not all 12. Survey of India is involved in the demarcation process.
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding mechanisms for managing inter-State relations in India:
- Article 263 provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
- Article 131 confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in certain disputes between States.
- The Inter-State Council is a judicial body empowered to adjudicate inter-State boundary disputes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Article 263 provides for an Inter-State Council, primarily for coordination, discussion and recommendations. It is not a judicial adjudicatory body. Article 131 gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in specified inter-governmental disputes.
Q3. The recent Assam–Meghalaya disturbances highlighted the importance of which of the following for the functioning of India’s federal system?
- District-level administrative coordination
- Police-to-police coordination
- Protection of inter-State transport corridors
- Resolution of boundary disputes exclusively through military intervention
Select the correct answer using the code below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The recent episode demonstrated the importance of cooperative administrative and security mechanisms, particularly around border districts and transport corridors. Military intervention is not the normal mechanism for resolving an inter-State boundary dispute.
Q4. With reference to inter-State boundary disputes in India, consider the following statements:
- An inter-State boundary dispute is constitutionally distinct from an international boundary dispute.
- A dispute between two States may fall within the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131.
- The final settlement of an inter-State boundary dispute necessarily requires an amendment to the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Inter-State disputes are distinct from international boundary disputes. Article 131 provides Supreme Court original jurisdiction in specified disputes between States. A constitutional amendment is not necessarily required for every inter-State boundary settlement.
Topic 2: Earthquake Preparedness in Assam & Northeast India
Q5. With reference to earthquakes and seismic risk in Assam, consider the following statements:
- Assam is located in one of India’s highest seismic hazard regions.
- The 1897 Shillong earthquake and the 1950 Assam–Tibet earthquake demonstrate the region’s potential for major earthquakes.
- A seismic gap enables scientists to predict the exact date and magnitude of the next earthquake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Assam has very high seismic vulnerability, and the 1897 and 1950 earthquakes are important historical examples. A seismic gap indicates an area requiring enhanced monitoring and preparedness; it does not permit precise earthquake prediction.
Q6. Consider the following pairs:
| Earthquake-related concept | Description |
| 1. Magnitude | Energy released by an earthquake |
| 2. Intensity | Effects of an earthquake at a particular location |
| 3. Liquefaction | Temporary loss of strength of saturated loose soil |
| 4. Retrofitting | Strengthening an existing structure |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: All four are correctly matched. Liquefaction is particularly important in areas containing loose, water-saturated sediments, while retrofitting reduces vulnerability of existing structures.
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding earthquake risk in Guwahati:
- Strong ground shaking can trigger liquefaction in susceptible alluvial areas.
- Earthquake-induced landslides can disrupt road connectivity in hilly areas.
- Soft-storey buildings can be particularly vulnerable during earthquakes.
- Earthquake risk is determined exclusively by the magnitude of the earthquake.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Earthquake disaster risk depends on the interaction of hazard, exposure and vulnerability, not merely magnitude. Guwahati’s alluvial soils, hilly terrain and vulnerable building stock can amplify consequences.
Q8. Which of the following measures is/are most appropriate for reducing earthquake disaster risk in Assam?
- Seismic auditing of critical infrastructure
- Retrofitting vulnerable buildings
- Seismic microzonation for urban planning
- Waiting for precise earthquake prediction before undertaking preparedness measures
Select the correct answer using the code below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Exact earthquake prediction is not presently possible. Therefore, mitigation, preparedness, resilient construction, retrofitting and microzonation are essential. The newspaper specifically recommends seismic audits, retrofitting and decentralised preparedness.
Topic 3: India–China Boundary Talks & Strategic Relations
Q9. With reference to the India–China Special Representatives mechanism, consider the following statements:
- It was established to address the India–China boundary question at the political level.
- India’s Special Representative is the National Security Adviser.
- It is identical in purpose and composition to the Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India–China Border Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Special Representatives mechanism deals with the boundary question at the political level. Ajit Doval is India’s Special Representative. The WMCC is a separate mechanism dealing primarily with consultation and coordination on border affairs.
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Line of Actual Control (LAC):
- The LAC is the same as the finally demarcated international boundary between India and China.
- Different perceptions of the LAC have historically contributed to military face-offs.
- The India–China boundary is conventionally discussed in western, middle and eastern sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The LAC is not the finally settled international boundary. Differences in its perception have contributed to patrol confrontations. The boundary is conventionally divided into western, middle and eastern sectors.
Q11. Consider the following pairs relating to India–China border management:
| Agreement/Mechanism | Main significance |
| 1. 1993 Agreement | Maintenance of peace and tranquillity along the LAC |
| 2. 1996 Agreement | Confidence-building measures in the military field |
| 3. 2005 Agreement | Political parameters and guiding principles for boundary settlement |
| 4. WMCC | Political-level final settlement of the boundary |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The 1993, 1996 and 2005 agreements have the respective significance stated. The WMCC is a consultation and coordination mechanism, whereas the Special Representatives mechanism is the political-level channel for the boundary question.
Q12. The recent India–China Special Representatives talks were particularly significant because they coincided with which of the following developments?
- Continuing efforts to stabilise relations after the 2020 Galwan Valley clash.
- Persistent differences concerning the boundary and Arunachal Pradesh.
- The proposed Chinese President’s visit to India for the BRICS Summit.
Select the correct answer using the code below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The newspaper explicitly connects the talks with the post-2020 relationship, continuing boundary/Arunachal Pradesh differences and the expected Chinese President’s visit for the BRICS Summit on 12–13 September 2026.
Topic 4: Parliamentary Scrutiny, Legislative Efficiency & Disruptions
Q13. With reference to Parliamentary Committees in India, consider the following statements:
- Parliamentary Committees enable detailed examination of matters that may not receive adequate time on the floor of the House.
- Recommendations of Parliamentary Committees are generally binding on the government.
- A Select Committee of a House and a Joint Parliamentary Committee necessarily have the same composition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A. 1 only
Explanation: Committees facilitate detailed scrutiny. Their recommendations are generally recommendatory, not automatically binding. A Select Committee is constituted by one House, whereas a Joint Parliamentary Committee comprises members from both Houses.
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Question Hour and Zero Hour:
- Starred questions require oral answers and permit supplementary questions.
- Unstarred questions receive written answers.
- Zero Hour is formally provided for in the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha.
- Question Hour is an important instrument of Executive accountability.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Starred questions receive oral answers and permit supplementary questions; unstarred questions receive written answers. Zero Hour evolved through parliamentary practice and is not formally recognised in the Rules of Procedure. Question Hour is a major accountability mechanism.
Q15. With reference to parliamentary disruptions, consider the following statements:
- Disruption can reduce the time available for legislative debate.
- Disruption of Question Hour can weaken direct Executive accountability.
- Every Bill passed without being referred to a Parliamentary Committee is unconstitutional.
- Legislative efficiency can be assessed solely by the number of Bills passed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Disruptions can reduce both legislative debate and executive scrutiny. Committee referral is not constitutionally mandatory for every Bill, and legislative efficiency cannot be measured merely by the number of Bills passed. The newspaper’s concern is precisely the distinction between speed and quality of law-making.
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding the financial committees of Parliament:
- The Public Accounts Committee examines expenditure of the government, including matters arising from CAG reports.
- The Estimates Committee examines estimates and may suggest economies and improvements in organisation and efficiency.
- The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the functioning of public sector undertakings.
- The Comptroller and Auditor General is a member of the Public Accounts Committee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: PAC examines CAG reports and government expenditure; the Estimates Committee examines estimates and suggests improvements; and the Committee on Public Undertakings examines PSUs. CAG is not a member of PAC; the CAG’s reports are examined by the committee.
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