APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –03/09/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (03-09-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 03/09/2026)
Topic1: Himalayan Warning and Energy Transition
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs):
- A GLOF occurs when water stored in a glacial lake is suddenly released due to the failure of a moraine or ice dam.
- The National Glacial Lake Outburst Flood Risk Mitigation Programme (NGRMP) is an initiative spearheaded by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
- The Analytic Hierarchy Process (AHP) is a mathematical tool exclusively used to measure the magnitude of seismic activity in the Himalayas. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because, in the context of the recent studies mentioned, the Analytic Hierarchy Process (AHP) was used to assess and rank GLOF risks (like lake expansion rates and proximity to glaciers), not to measure seismic magnitude.
Q2. Consider the following pairs of Hydroelectric/Water projects and their associated States/Regions:
- Subansiri Lower: Assam–Arunachal Pradesh border
- South Lhonak Lake: Sikkim
- Etalin Hydroelectric Project: Arunachal Pradesh How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched. Subansiri Lower is on the Assam-AP border, South Lhonak Lake (site of the 2023 GLOF) is in Sikkim, and Etalin is a major proposed hydropower project in Arunachal Pradesh.
Q3. Statement-I: Reservoir-based hydropower is considered a highly valuable asset for integrating variable renewable energy sources into the national grid. Statement-II: Unlike solar and wind energy, reservoir-based hydropower is dispatchable and its generation can be rapidly adjusted according to real-time electricity demand.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Both statements are correct, and Statement-II correctly explains why hydropower (Statement-I) is critical for grid balancing. It offsets the intermittent/variable nature of solar and wind power.
Q4. With reference to the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE), consider the following statements:
- It is one of the original missions established under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
- Its core objective is to rapidly expand large-scale hydropower capacity across the Indian Himalayan Region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) 1 only
- (B) 2 only
- (C) Both 1 and 2
- (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect; NMSHE focuses on knowledge generation, capacity building, vulnerability assessment, and ecological sustainability, not on expanding hydropower infrastructure.
Topic2: Special Intensive Revision (SIR) Phase 3: Final Electoral Rolls
Q5. How many of the following provisions are governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950?
- Preparation and revision of electoral rolls
- Conditions of registration and ordinary residence for voters
- Registration of political parties
- Disqualifications for being a Member of Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) Only three
- (D) All four
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Only items 1 and 2 are correct. The RPA, 1950 deals primarily with the preparation of electoral rolls and voter qualifications. Registration of political parties and disqualifications for MPs/MLAs are dealt with under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Constitutional framework of elections in India:
- Article 324 explicitly grants the Election Commission of India the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls.
- Article 325 mandates that there shall be one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency.
- Article 326 provides that elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: All three statements are correct constitutional provisions directly related to the electoral roll revision process.
Q7. With reference to the Supreme Court’s 2026 judgment concerning the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) and electoral rolls, consider the following statements:
- The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar serves as a conclusive proof of Indian citizenship for electoral registration.
- Non-inclusion of a person’s name in a draft electoral roll is merely provisional until final scrutiny, notice, and hearing are completed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) 1 only
- (B) 2 only
- (C) Both 1 and 2
- (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the Supreme Court explicitly held that Aadhaar may serve as an identity document but is NOT proof of Indian citizenship. Statement 2 is correct; the court emphasized that due process (claims, objections, hearings) must precede final exclusion.
Q8. Statement-I: During the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, the Election Commission heavily relies on Booth Level Officers (BLOs) and Booth Level Agents (BLAs).
Statement-II: Both BLOs and BLAs are government officials appointed directly by the Election Commission of India to conduct house-to-house enumeration. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is incorrect because while BLOs are election officials, Booth Level Agents (BLAs) are representatives appointed by recognized political parties to ensure transparency, not government officials.
Topic3: Lachit Borphukan Police Academy to be Developed as a National-Level Police Training Institution
Q9. Consider the following pairs of Police Training Institutions and their primary mandates:
- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy (SVPNPA): Basic induction training for IPS probationers.
- North Eastern Police Academy (NEPA): Institution under the Ministry of Home Affairs serving the Northeast police fraternity.
- Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D): Direct operational deployment of paramilitary forces in border areas. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched; BPR&D is responsible for police research, training policy, and standardisation, not operational deployment of forces.
Q10. The newly implemented basic training curriculum for police personnel across India places heavy emphasis on the “BNS, BNSS, and BSA”. These acronyms refer to:
- (A) Specialised border security forces deployed in the Northeast.
- (B) The newly enacted criminal laws replacing the IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act.
- (C) Advanced cyber-forensic and intelligence gathering software.
- (D) Specialized constitutional training modules for internal security.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita), BNSS (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita), and BSA (Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam) are the new criminal laws replacing the traditional legal codes.
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework for handling cybercrime in India:
- The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
- The National Cyber Forensic Laboratory can be established in regional police academies to train personnel in digital evidence and cyber forensics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) 1 only
- (B) 2 only
- (C) Both 1 and 2
- (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the I4C operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Statement 2 is correct, as seen in the establishment of a National Cyber Forensic Laboratory at the Lachit Borphukan Police Academy in collaboration with I4C.
Q12. The concept of “SMART Policing”, frequently advocated for police reforms, stands for a police force that is:
- (A) Specialised, Militarised, Armed, Ruthless, and Tactical
- (B) Sensitive, Modern, Alert, Responsive, and Tech-savvy
- (C) Strategic, Mobile, Analytical, Resourceful, and Transparent
- (D) State-managed, Modernised, Agile, Regional, and Trained
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The SMART policing framework, advocated by the Government of India, stands for a police force that is Strict and Sensitive, Modern and Mobile, Alert and Accountable, Reliable and Responsive, Tech-savvy and Trained.
Topic4: Assam Emerges as a “Growth Engine”: Union Minister
Q13. With reference to the Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme (UNNATI), consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme specifically designed for the industrial development of Northeast India.
- It offers financial incentives including Capital Investment Incentive (CII) and Capital Interest Subvention (CIS).
- It exclusively promotes agricultural crop production and bans the establishment of manufacturing industries. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because UNNATI’s core objective is to boost manufacturing and services-linked industrialization, not to ban it.
Q14. Statement-I: An increase in a State’s nominal Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) at current prices guarantees an actual increase in the volume of goods and services produced in that State.
Statement-II: Nominal GSDP is calculated using current market prices and includes the effects of inflation, which can inflate the figure without real economic growth. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect because nominal growth does not guarantee real growth (an increase in volume); the increase could be solely due to inflation. Statement-II is correct and explains why nominal GSDP can rise without real output increasing.
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding the Scheme for Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI):
- It provides 50-year interest-free loans to State Governments.
- The funds provided under this scheme can be freely utilized by the States to pay regular salaries and pensions to government employees. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) 1 only
- (B) 2 only
- (C) Both 1 and 2
- (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect; the funds under SASCI are strictly ring-fenced for capital expenditure (creating physical infrastructure, assets) and cannot be used for revenue expenditure like salaries or pensions.
Q16. The recent establishment of a major Tata facility at Jagiroad represents a significant shift in the region’s economic profile. What is the primary focus of this facility?
- (A) Large-scale processing and export of indigenous Assam Tea.
- (B) Advanced Semiconductor Assembly and Test operations.
- (C) Extraction and refinement of petroleum and natural gas.
- (D) Establishment of a multimodal inland waterway terminal.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Tata facility at Jagiroad is a massive ₹27,000 crore investment aimed at Semiconductor Assembly and Test operations, representing Assam’s strategic economic diversification away from traditional resources (tea/oil) toward advanced electronics and technology.
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