APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –20/02/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (20-02-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 20/02/2025)
Q1. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaces which of the following?
A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. Indian Penal Code, 1860
D. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
BNS replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 and deals with substantive criminal law.
Q2. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 primarily deals with:
A. Civil procedure
B. Criminal investigation
C. Rules of evidence
D. Tax adjudication
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
BSA replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and modernizes evidentiary provisions, including digital evidence.
Q3. The State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA) is constituted under:
A. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
B. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
C. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
D. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
SEIAA functions under the EIA Notification, 2006, issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q4. The EIA Notification, 2006 categorizes projects into:
A. Category A and Category B
B. Category I and Category II
C. Category X and Category Y
D. Class I and Class II
✅ Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are classified into Category A (Central clearance) and Category B (State clearance via SEIAA).
Q5. The Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE+) is primarily related to:
A. Agricultural statistics
B. Education data management
C. Health monitoring
D. Urban governance
✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
UDISE+ is a data platform that tracks school education statistics across India.
Q6. Under the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the pupil-teacher ratio norms are prescribed to ensure:
A. Administrative decentralization
B. Fiscal consolidation
C. Quality elementary education
D. Privatization of schools
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
RTE mandates minimum pupil-teacher ratios to ensure quality elementary education.
Q7. The Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) is associated with:
A. Coal mining reforms
B. Hydrocarbon exploration
C. Land acquisition
D. Renewable energy auctions
✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
OALP allows companies to select exploration blocks for oil and gas under the HELP framework.
Q8. Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) technology is primarily used in:
A. Climate modelling
B. Geospatial mapping
C. Speech-to-text systems
D. Water purification
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
ASR is used in converting spoken language into text, such as in AI-based voice tools.
Q9. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), mandatory forensic investigation is required for offences punishable with imprisonment of:
A. 3 years or more
B. 5 years or more
C. 7 years or more
D. 10 years or more
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
BNSS mandates forensic investigation for offences punishable with 7 years or more imprisonment.
Q10. Which of the following is NOT replaced by the new criminal laws enacted in 2023?
A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. Indian Penal Code, 1860
D. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
✅ Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The UAPA, 1967 continues separately and was not replaced by BNS/BNSS/BSA.
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