APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Questions (15/05/2026)

APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –15/05/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (15-05-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 15/05/2026)


1. With reference to BRICS, consider the following statements:

  1. The New Development Bank (NDB) was established in 2014.
  2. The headquarters of NDB is located in Beijing.
  3. BRICS aims to reform global governance institutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: NDB headquarters is in Shanghai, China.

2. The Strait of Hormuz connects:

A. Arabian Sea and Persian Gulf
B. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
C. Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
D. Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean

Answer: A. Arabian Sea and Persian Gulf

Explanation:

The Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran and Oman and connects the Persian Gulf with the Arabian Sea.


3. Which of the following countries was NOT an original member of BRICS?

A. China
B. India
C. Russia
D. South Africa

Answer: D. South Africa

Explanation:

South Africa joined BRICS in 2010, while the original grouping (BRIC) was formed in 2009.


4. Consider the following statements regarding the Pro Tem Speaker:

  1. The office is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
  2. The Pro Tem Speaker administers oath to newly elected members.
  3. The Pro Tem Speaker conducts the election of the Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because the Constitution does not explicitly mention the term “Pro Tem Speaker.”
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

5. Article 99 of the Constitution relates to:

A. Money Bills
B. Oath by Members of Parliament
C. Powers of Rajya Sabha
D. Removal of Judges

Answer: B. Oath by Members of Parliament

Explanation:

Article 99 deals with oath or affirmation by Members of Parliament.


6. Which of the following is responsible for conducting the Census of India?

A. Election Commission of India
B. National Statistical Office
C. Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India
D. NITI Aayog

Answer: C. Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India

Explanation:

The Census is conducted under the Census Act, 1948 by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner.


7. Viksit Bharat 2047 primarily refers to:

A. India’s defence modernization programme
B. India’s vision to become a developed nation by 2047
C. India’s digital currency initiative
D. India’s climate treaty obligations

Answer: B. India’s vision to become a developed nation by 2047

Explanation:

Viksit Bharat 2047 is India’s long-term developmental vision for becoming a developed country by the centenary of independence.


8. Which of the following indicators is commonly used to measure inflation in India?

A. Consumer Price Index (CPI)
B. Fiscal Deficit Ratio
C. Gross Enrolment Ratio
D. Human Development Index

Answer: A. Consumer Price Index (CPI)

Explanation:

CPI measures changes in retail prices and is widely used for inflation assessment.


9. Consider the following statements regarding evidence-based policymaking:

  1. It relies on reliable statistical data.
  2. It improves targeted welfare delivery.
  3. It discourages digital governance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect because evidence-based governance often strengthens digital governance.

10. Which of the following schemes is directly related to skill development in India?

A. PM-KISAN
B. PMKVY
C. PMGSY
D. Stand-Up India

Answer: B. PMKVY

Explanation:

PMKVY (Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana) is a flagship skill development programme.


11. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) functions as:

A. Constitutional body
B. Judicial institution
C. Public-private partnership organization
D. Regulatory authority for universities

Answer: C. Public-private partnership organization

Explanation:

NSDC promotes skill development through collaboration with industries and training institutions.


12. Apprenticeship training is best described as:

A. Classroom-only vocational education
B. On-the-job practical skill training
C. Online certification programme
D. Industrial taxation policy

Answer: B. On-the-job practical skill training

Explanation:

Apprenticeship combines workplace learning with skill development.


13. Which of the following is a major objective of industry–academia linkage?

A. Elimination of private sector participation
B. Improving employability and innovation
C. Restricting technological advancement
D. Replacing universities with industries

Answer: B. Improving employability and innovation

Explanation:

Industry–academia collaboration aims to bridge the gap between education and market requirements.


14. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is associated with:

A. ASEAN
B. BRICS
C. OECD
D. SCO

Answer: B. BRICS

Explanation:

CRA is a financial safety mechanism established by BRICS countries.


15. Which of the following Articles deals with the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly?

A. Article 168
B. Article 178
C. Article 200
D. Article 356

Answer: B. Article 178

Explanation:

Article 178 provides for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly.

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