APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –16/10/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (16-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 16/10/2026)
Topic 1: Expansion of Mukhya Mantrir Nijut Moina & Nijut Babu Schemes
Q1. With reference to the Mukhya Mantrir Nijut Moina Scheme launched in Assam, consider the following statements:
- It provides financial assistance with no household income ceiling to eligible female students enrolled in higher education.
- Married female students are eligible to receive monthly stipends under the scheme at the Post-Graduation level.
- Female students enrolled in private undergraduate colleges and universities are eligible on par with those in government-provincialised institutions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Nijut Moina is universal for eligible female students with no household income limit, and while married girls are barred at the Higher Secondary and Undergraduate levels to discourage early child marriage, married scholars pursuing Post-Graduation or B.Ed are explicitly eligible. Statement 3 is incorrect because students enrolled in private, non-provincialised educational institutions are excluded from the scheme.
Q2. Consider the following constitutional provisions in the context of state-sponsored educational affirmative action and conditional cash transfer schemes for vulnerable groups:
- Article 15(3) empowers the State to make special provisions in favor of women and children.
- Article 41 directs the State to make effective provisions for securing the right to education within the limits of its economic capacity.
- Article 46 obligates the State to promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Article 15(3) enables targeted female-centric welfare like the Nijut Moina scheme. Articles 41 and 46 (Directive Principles of State Policy) provide constitutional backing for state interventions aimed at removing financial hurdles to education and promoting the advancement of economically vulnerable students.
Q3. With reference to the Mukhya Mantrir Nijut Babu Scheme in Assam, consider the following statements:
- It is designed to provide recurring financial assistance to male students belonging to families with an annual income below Rs 4 lakh.
- The financial assistance is disbursed through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for all twelve calendar months of an academic year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; unlike the universal Nijut Moina scheme, Nijut Babu has an income threshold of less than Rs 4 lakh per annum. Statement 2 is incorrect because the stipend is paid for a maximum of 10 months in an academic session, excluding summer vacations and breaks exceeding one month.
Q4. In the context of higher education welfare programs in Assam, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Students pursuing professional nursing courses such as ANM, GNM, and BSc Nursing have been brought under the purview of the Nijut Moina scheme.
Statement-II: Students who have received a scooter under the Banikanta Kakati Merit Award can simultaneously avail of the full recurring benefits of the Nijut Moina scheme without restrictions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement-I is correct as nursing students have been explicitly included in the expanded ambit of the scheme. Statement-II is incorrect because beneficiaries of the Pragyan Bharati scheme who receive a scooter under the Banikanta Kakati Merit Award are ineligible for Nijut Moina unless they formally forgo the scooter benefit.
Topic 2: Internal Security & Tribal Welfare: The Bastar Development-Rehabilitation Model
Q5. With reference to counter-insurgency and development initiatives in Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected regions, consider the following pairs:
- Niyad Nellanar Scheme : Targeted extension of civic amenities within a fixed radius of newly established security camps
- Bastariya Battalion : Specialized force raised within the Central Reserve Police Force composed of local tribal youth
- Seva Sankalp Abhiyan : Civic welfare outreach providing assistive and prosthetic devices to landmine and IED blast victims
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (c) Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched. Niyad Nellanar (“Your Good Village”) delivers civic infrastructure around security camps in Chhattisgarh; the Bastariya Battalion (241st Bn CRPF) was raised specifically from Bastar’s tribal youth; and Seva Sankalp Abhiyan provides rehabilitative aids to Divyangjans and victims of Naxal IED blasts.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional administration of tribal areas in India:
- Fifth Schedule areas are administered through Autonomous District Councils possessing direct regional legislative and judicial powers.
- Under the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), the Gram Sabha has the mandatory power to prevent alienation of land in Scheduled Areas.
- The executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to the State regarding the administration of Fifth Schedule areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Under PESA, Gram Sabhas have explicit powers over land alienation, minor forest produce, and local disputes. Under Para 3 of the Fifth Schedule, Union executive power extends to giving directions to states. Statement 1 is incorrect because Autonomous District Councils with legislative powers are a feature of the Sixth Schedule (applicable to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram), whereas Fifth Schedule areas function under the Governor advised by a Tribes Advisory Council (TAC).
Q7. In the context of India’s internal security apparatus against Left-Wing Extremism (LWE), consider the following statements:
- The SAMADHAN doctrine formulated by the Ministry of Home Affairs emphasizes actionable intelligence, infrastructure development, and choking insurgent financing channels.
- The Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) is a specialized guerrilla warfare strike unit functioning under the National Security Guard (NSG).
- The Security Related Expenditure (SRE) scheme provides 100% central reimbursement for specific operational and rehabilitation expenditures incurred by LWE-affected states.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because CoBRA is an elite jungle-warfare unit operating under the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), not the National Security Guard (NSG).
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the statutory framework governing counter-extremism and tribal rights in India:
Statement-I: Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, an entity can be declared a terrorist organization only through an amendment passed by Parliament.
Statement-II: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 empowers the Gram Sabha to initiate the process for determining individual and community forest rights.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect because the Central Government adds or removes organizations from the First Schedule of the UAPA via executive notification in the Official Gazette under Section 35, without requiring a legislative amendment for each designation. Statement-II is correct; Section 6 of the Forest Rights Act, 2006 designates the Gram Sabha as the primary authority to initiate the determination of forest rights.
Topic 3: Trade Governance & Export Controls: National Strategic Trade Command Centre (NSTCC)
Q9. With reference to the National Strategic Trade Command Centre (NSTCC) launched in India, consider the following statements:
- It functions as an integrated data visualization platform to monitor national trade trends and streamline the processing of export applications.
- It was established under the administrative oversight of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It grants automatic export clearances for dual-use technologies, bypassing inter-ministerial screening committees.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the NSTCC monitors pendency and analytics; sensitive dual-use items still require evaluation by the Inter-Ministerial Committee to prevent illicit proliferation.
Q10. With reference to India’s Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies (SCOMET) list, consider the following statements:
- SCOMET regulates goods, software, and technologies that possess both civilian and military applications.
- Export controls on SCOMET items are enforced under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, and the Weapons of Mass Destruction Act, 2005.
- The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is the licensing authority for all categories of the SCOMET list, including nuclear materials under Category 0.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because Category 0 items (Nuclear materials, equipment, and technology) are licensed exclusively by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), not the DGFT.
Q11. Consider the following Multilateral Export Control Regimes:
- Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
- Wassenaar Arrangement
- Australia Group
- Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
India is a participating member of how many of the above regimes?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India is a member of three regimes: MTCR (admitted in 2016), Wassenaar Arrangement (admitted in 2017), and Australia Group (admitted in 2018). India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) due to a lack of consensus among member states.
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding export control administration in India:
Statement-I: The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) incorporates a voluntary self-disclosure mechanism for exporters who inadvertently breach SCOMET compliance regulations.
Statement-II: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is a statutory tribunal established under the Customs Act, 1962.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statement-I is correct as Chapter 10 of Foreign Trade Policy 2023 provides for voluntary self-disclosure of non-compliance. Statement-II is incorrect because the DGFT is an attached executive office under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry governed by the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, not a tribunal under the Customs Act.
Topic 4: Bilateral Economic Diplomacy: India–US Free Trade Negotiations
Q13. With reference to trade dynamics between India and the United States, consider the following statements:
- The United States is India’s single largest bilateral merchandise trading partner.
- India maintains a persistent merchandise trade deficit with the United States.
- India is currently a designated beneficiary developing country under the US Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) program.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because India runs a sizable merchandise trade surplus with the US. Statement 3 is incorrect because the US terminated India’s eligibility under the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) in June 2019.
Q14. In the context of international trade law, consider the following statements regarding the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT):
- Article XXIV of GATT permits the establishment of regional Free Trade Areas and Customs Unions as an exception to the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) principle.
- To qualify under GATT Article XXIV, a preferential trade agreement must eliminate duties and restrictive regulations on substantially all trade between the constituent territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article XXIV provides the primary legal gateway under WTO law for countries to sign preferential FTAs without extending the same concessions to all other WTO members, provided duties are eliminated on “substantially all trade.”
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding economic and strategic initiatives involving India and the United States:
- Under the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF), India has formally joined all four policy pillars, including the Trade Pillar.
- The Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET) focuses on bilateral collaboration in semiconductors, artificial intelligence, and quantum computing.
- The India–US Trade Policy Forum (TPF) is a dispute resolution panel operating under the World Trade Organization (WTO).
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because India opted out of the Trade Pillar (Pillar I) of IPEF while participating in the Supply Chains, Clean Economy, and Fair Economy pillars. Statement 3 is incorrect because the TPF is a bilateral ministerial platform established in 2005, not a multilateral WTO dispute panel.
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding treaty-making and international agreements under the Constitution of India:
Statement-I: A bilateral free trade agreement signed and ratified by the Government of India becomes automatically enforceable in domestic courts without requiring statutory implementation.
Statement-II: Article 253 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with foreign countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect because India adheres to the “dualist” approach to international law; international treaties and trade agreements do not automatically become enforceable in municipal courts unless translated into domestic law through parliamentary legislation. Statement-II is correct; Article 253 specifically grants Parliament overriding power to pass laws implementing international treaties, even on subjects enumerated in the State List.
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