APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –12/10/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (12-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 12/10/2026)
Topic 1: Constitutional Validity of the Death Penalty in India
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the judicial precedents related to the death penalty in India:
- The ‘rarest of rare’ doctrine was established by the Supreme Court in the Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab case.
- The Supreme Court upheld mandatory capital punishment under Section 303 of the IPC in the Mithu v. State of Punjab case.
- The recent Rishi Malhotra v. Union of India (2026) judgment abolished execution by hanging in favour of lethal injection.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (a) Only one Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court struck down (invalidated) the mandatory death penalty in the Mithu case. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Rishi Malhotra case upheld hanging and dismissed the petition for alternative methods.
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the statutory and constitutional framework of the criminal justice system in India:
- Section 393(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 mandates that a judgment imposing a death sentence must state special reasons for the sentence.
- Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor has the power to grant pardons and commute sentences, including matters within the state’s executive sphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 Explanation: Both statements are correct as per the new BNSS provisions and the constitutional clemency powers granted to the Governor under Article 161.
Q3. Consider the following pairs of Law Commission Reports and their recommendations regarding capital punishment:
- 35th Report (1967) : Supported the retention of the death penalty.
- 187th Report (2003) : Recommended mandatory death sentences for heinous crimes.
- 262nd Report (2015) : Recommended abolishing the death penalty for all crimes without any exceptions.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) All three pairs
- (d) None of the pairs
Answer: (a) Only one pair Explanation: Only pair 1 is correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrect because the 187th report examined alternatives to hanging. Pair 3 is incorrect because the 262nd report recommended abolition for all crimes except terrorism-related offences and waging war.
Q4. Statement I: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution automatically invalidates every form of capital punishment because it protects life and personal liberty.
Statement II: The constitutional validity of the death penalty is maintained because the deprivation of life follows a procedure established by law that satisfies constitutional standards of fairness.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
- (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
- (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
- (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Explanation: Article 21 protects life and liberty but does not automatically invalidate capital punishment. The death penalty is valid because it is carried out following a fair procedure established by law, making Statement II correct and I incorrect.
Topic 2: UPI MDR Framework Needs Rationalisation to Protect Public Trust
Q5. In the context of digital payments in India, which of the following best describes the ‘Merchant Discount Rate’ (MDR)?
- (a) A cashback incentive provided by the RBI to consumers for using digital transactions.
- (b) The fee paid by a merchant to the acquiring bank or payment service provider for processing a digital payment.
- (c) A tax levied by the central government on all peer-to-peer digital money transfers.
- (d) A discount offered by online e-commerce platforms to customers using credit cards.
Answer: (b) The fee paid by a merchant to the acquiring bank or payment service provider for processing a digital payment. Explanation: MDR is the fee associated with processing a digital payment, generally paid by the merchant to the acquiring bank to compensate the payment ecosystem participants.
Q6. With reference to the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), consider the following statements:
- UPI is operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) directly.
- The regulatory oversight of UPI falls under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because UPI is operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), not directly by the RBI. Statement 2 is correct as the RBI provides regulatory oversight under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Q7. According to the recommendations of the IIT Bombay report titled “UPI at a Crossroads”, consider the following statements:
- MDR should be restricted primarily to large merchants with an annual turnover of ₹50 crore or more.
- Loan EMI repayments and debt-collection transactions should attract a higher MDR to cross-subsidize small merchants.
- Person-to-person (P2P) transfers should be brought under the MDR framework.
How many of the above recommendations were made in the report?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (a) Only one Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. The report recommends keeping loan EMI repayments completely free (rejecting statement 2) and keeping P2P transfers free (rejecting statement 3).
Q8. Consider the following transaction categories under the newly reported NPCI UPI MDR framework (September 2026):
- Specified person-to-merchant (P2M) transactions above ₹2,000.
- High-value transactions of ₹75,000 or more under the general rate.
- Person-to-person (P2P) transfers.
How many of the above categories are proposed to remain strictly free from MDR charges?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (a) Only one Explanation: Only P2P transfers (category 3) remain free. Specified P2M transactions above ₹2,000 attract a 0.4% MDR, and high-value transactions above ₹75,000 are capped at a ₹300 fee.
Topic 3: Ahimsa Eri Silk Gaining Ground in Global Market
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Eri Silk:
- It is a traditional silk indigenous primarily to Assam and Northeast India.
- Every Eri silk product automatically qualifies as Ahimsa silk because of the region it is grown in.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because not every Eri silk product qualifies as Ahimsa silk; commercial extraction may involve forcibly removing the pupa. The specific non-violent production process determines if it is Ahimsa silk.
Q10. What specifically distinguishes “Ahimsa Silk” (or Peace Silk) from conventionally processed silk?
- (a) It is woven entirely by hand without the use of electricity.
- (b) It is produced using a process that allows the silkworm moth to emerge naturally from the cocoon unharmed.
- (c) It is dyed using only organic, plant-based non-toxic colours.
- (d) It is heavily subsidized by the government for below-poverty-line weavers.
Answer: (b) It is produced using a process that allows the silkworm moth to emerge naturally from the cocoon unharmed. Explanation: The defining characteristic of Ahimsa or Peace silk is its cruelty-free production process where the moth is allowed to emerge naturally before the cocoon is processed.
Q11. The Central Muga Eri Research and Training Institute provides the institutional base for research and development of this traditional sericulture. It operates under the administrative control of which of the following bodies?
- (a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
- (b) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER)
- (c) Central Silk Board
- (d) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
Answer: (c) Central Silk Board Explanation: The Central Muga Eri Research and Training Institute operates under the Central Silk Board, providing foundational support for sericulture development.
Q12. Statement I: Ahimsa Eri silk has significant export potential in international markets like the USA, France, and Japan.
Statement II: There is a highly standardized and globally recognized uniform certification process in India that easily distinguishes Ahimsa silk from conventional Eri silk.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
- (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
- (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
- (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Explanation: Statement I is true as there is high global demand. Statement II is incorrect because one of the major challenges facing the industry is the exact opposite: a lack of standardized certification and traceability for Ahimsa silk.
Topic 4: Government Releases Draft National Steel Policy 2047
Q13. With reference to the Draft National Steel Policy — Vision 2047, consider the following proposed targets:
- Expanding India’s crude steel capacity to 604 million tonnes.
- Reducing carbon-emission intensity from 2.54 to 1.54 tonnes of CO2 per tonne of crude steel.
- Achieving a net-zero emission target for the steel industry by 2047.
How many of the above targets are specifically proposed in the draft policy?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b) Only two Explanation: Targets 1 and 2 are correct. Target 3 is incorrect because India’s national net-zero target is 2070, and the draft policy does not mandate net-zero for the steel industry by 2047.
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the raw material security of the Indian steel industry:
- India currently imports approximately 92% of its coking coal requirements.
- India is entirely self-sufficient in coking coal and only imports iron ore.
- The Vision 2047 draft policy proposes diversifying coking-coal imports and improving domestic coal-washing capabilities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Answer: (b) Only two Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because India is heavily dependent on imported coking coal (not self-sufficient).
Q15. In the context of India’s steel manufacturing sector, which of the following government initiatives is specifically aimed at encouraging the domestic production of higher-value, import-substitute steel grades?
- (a) PM GatiShakti
- (b) Make in India 2.0
- (c) Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Specialty Steel
- (d) National Infrastructure Pipeline
Answer: (c) Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Specialty Steel Explanation: The PLI Scheme for Specialty Steel is the specific government initiative designed to encourage domestic manufacturing of high-value specialty steel.
Q16. Consider the following statements:
- India is currently the world’s largest producer of crude steel.
- “Crude steel capacity” represents a country’s actual annual finished steel consumption. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because India is the world’s second-largest crude steel producer. Statement 2 is incorrect because crude steel capacity is the maximum production capability, which is distinct from actual production or finished-steel consumption.
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