APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –08/10/2026

By Amit SirPublished Updated 11 min read
These MCQs come from today’s Assam Tribune notes:Full Assam Tribune notes →Only today’s answer writing →
In this post
  1. APSC Prelims MCQs
    1. Topic 1: Guwahati as a Transit Point for Illegal Migration and Border Management
    2. Topic 2: India–Canada Security Ties & Transnational Crime
    3. Topic 3: Kaziranga’s Survival & Floodplain Ecology
    4. Topic 4: Brahmaputra Waterway (NW-2) & Regional Connectivity

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (08-10-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC Prelims MCQs

From The Assam Tribune, 8 October 2026

Topic 1: Guwahati as a Transit Point for Illegal Migration and Border Management

Q1. With reference to the institutional mechanisms governing border security and immigration in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Border Security Force (BSF) functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
  2. The Bureau of Immigration (BoI) is tasked with immigration functions and operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  3. State police forces possess the statutory authority to investigate offences related to document forgery and human trafficking detected within their territorial jurisdiction.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Border Security Force (BSF) is a Central Armed Police Force (CAPF) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Defence.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Bureau of Immigration (BoI) operates under the MHA (led by the Intelligence Bureau) to handle immigration oversight across designated international checkpoints.
  • Statement 3 is correct: While international border guarding falls under central forces, law and order and police are State subjects (List II); state police investigate local facilitators, fake documentation, and trafficking networks within their state.

Q2. Consider the following Indian States:

  1. Assam
  2. Meghalaya
  3. Tripura
  4. Manipur
  5. Mizoram

How many of the above States share a land border with Bangladesh?

  • (a) Only two
  • (b) Only three
  • (c) Only four
  • (d) All five
Show answer

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Five Indian states share the 4,096.7 km border with Bangladesh: West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Manipur does not share an international border with Bangladesh (it shares a border with Myanmar to its east).

Q3. With reference to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, consider the following statements:

  1. It was inserted into the Citizenship Act following the signing of the Assam Accord in 1985.
  2. It sets March 25, 1971, as the cut-off date for detecting and expelling foreign nationals who entered Assam from Bangladesh.
  3. The constitutional validity of Section 6A was upheld by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3
Show answer

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Section 6A was introduced by an amendment in 1985 following the Assam Accord. Persons who entered Assam from Bangladesh before January 1, 1966, were deemed citizens, while those entering between January 1, 1966, and March 24, 1971 (midnight/March 25, 1971) were required to register and obtain citizenship after a 10-year period.
  • Statement 3 is correct: In October 2024, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India upheld the constitutional validity of Section 6A, recognizing Assam’s unique historical context.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding cross-border movement and the legal framework governing foreigners in India:

  • Statement-I: A foreign national entering India through an unauthorized route without a valid passport and visa is liable for prosecution and lawful deportation under Indian law.
  • Statement-II: Under the Constitution of India, fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 21 are available to Indian citizens as well as foreign nationals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  • Statement-I is correct: Entry into India without valid travel documents violates statutory immigration laws, attracting detention, prosecution, and deportation.
  • Statement-II is correct: Fundamental rights under Article 14 (Equality before law) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) apply to all persons on Indian soil, including foreign citizens. However, Statement-II is not the causal explanation for immigration enforcement under Statement-I.

Topic 2: India–Canada Security Ties & Transnational Crime

Q5. With reference to Extradition under Indian law, consider the following statements:

  1. Extradition from India is governed by the Extradition Act, 1962.
  2. The principle of “Dual Criminality” mandates that the alleged act must be recognized as a punishable criminal offence under the laws of both the requesting state and the requested state.
  3. India cannot extradite an offender to a foreign country in the absence of a signed bilateral extradition treaty.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Extradition Act, 1962 provides the statutory framework for extraditing fugitive criminals to and from India.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Dual criminality is a core extradition doctrine requiring that the conduct constitutes a serious crime in both jurisdictions.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Section 3(4) of the Extradition Act, 1962, the Government of India can treat an international convention (such as UNTOC) as an extradition arrangement or extradite on the basis of reciprocity even without a comprehensive bilateral treaty.

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC):

  1. It is the main international instrument in the fight against transnational organized crime.
  2. It is supplemented by three protocols targeting trafficking in persons, smuggling of migrants, and illicit manufacturing of firearms.
  3. India has ratified the convention and its supplementary protocols.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3
Show answer

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct: UNTOC (Palermo Convention) was adopted in 2000 and is supplemented by three Protocols: the Trafficking in Persons Protocol, the Smuggling of Migrants Protocol, and the Firearms Protocol.
  • Statement 3 is correct: India ratified UNTOC and its three protocols in 2011.

Q7. With reference to bilateral economic agreements, what is the key difference between a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) and a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)?

  • (a) CEPA deals exclusively with defense trade, whereas CECA covers civilian goods.
  • (b) CECA generally focuses on tariff reduction on trade in goods, whereas CEPA covers a wider scope including trade in services, investment, intellectual property, and economic cooperation.
  • (c) CEPA is signed only between developing countries, while CECA is reserved for developed partners.
  • (d) CECA is legally binding under WTO rules, whereas CEPA is a non-binding memorandum of understanding.
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

In Indian trade diplomacy, a CECA primarily targets liberalization of trade in goods (tariffs and quotas), whereas a CEPA is more comprehensive, covering goods, trade in services, investment regimes, intellectual property rights, and dispute settlement mechanisms.

Q8. With reference to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, consider the following statements:

  1. A receiving State may at any time, without having to explain its decision, notify the sending State that any member of the diplomatic staff is persona non grata.
  2. The premises of a diplomatic mission are immune from search, requisition, attachment, or execution by the receiving State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 9 of the Vienna Convention, the receiving State may declare any diplomatic agent persona non grata at any time without stating reasons.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 22, the premises of the mission are inviolable; agents of the host state cannot enter without permission, and the premises are exempt from search or attachment.

Topic 3: Kaziranga’s Survival & Floodplain Ecology

Q9. Consider the following fauna:

  1. Greater one-horned rhinoceros
  2. Pygmy hog
  3. Eastern swamp deer
  4. Wild water buffalo
  5. Asian elephant

How many of the above species are naturally found in Kaziranga National Park?

  • (a) Only two
  • (b) Only three
  • (c) Only four
  • (d) All five
Show answer

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Kaziranga hosts the Greater one-horned rhinoceros, Eastern swamp deer, Wild water buffalo, Royal Bengal tiger, and Asian elephant (known as the “Big Five”). The Pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) is not found in Kaziranga; its primary wild population is restricted to Manas National Park in western Assam.

Q10. With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  2. The primary objective of notifying ESZs is to completely prohibit all commercial, agricultural, and human activities around protected areas.
  3. Commercial mining and setting up of major polluting industries are strictly prohibited activities within an ESZ.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: ESZs are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (specifically Section 3), not the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: ESZs act as “shock absorbers” and do not prohibit all activities; activities are classified into prohibited, regulated, and permitted (e.g., ongoing agricultural practices and domestic water harvesting are permitted).
  • Statement 3 is correct: Commercial mining, stone quarrying, and polluting industries are strictly prohibited inside ESZs.

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the ecology of the Brahmaputra floodplain and Kaziranga:

  • Statement-I: Annual seasonal flooding is an essential ecological driver for sustaining the tall alluvial grasslands and wetlands of Kaziranga.
  • Statement-II: River-induced floodwaters deposit nutrient-rich alluvium, clear hyacinth weeds, and facilitate hydrological connectivity among wetland beels.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Floods in Kaziranga are not simply natural disasters; they are essential for the ecosystem. Annual flooding cleanses oxbow lakes (beels), washes away invasive biomass, deposits fresh silt, and rejuvenates grassland productivity required to feed large herbivore populations. Thus, Statement-II directly explains Statement-I.

Q12. With reference to wildlife conservation infrastructure, why is maintaining functional connectivity between Kaziranga National Park and the Karbi Anglong Hills considered critical?

  • (a) It is the primary saltwater breeding ground for the endangered Ganges river dolphin.
  • (b) It serves as a vital upland refuge for wildlife escaping inundation during severe monsoon floods.
  • (c) It prevents the flow of the Brahmaputra River from silting the National Highway.
  • (d) It is the designated corridor for seasonal trans-Himalayan bird migration towards Tibet.
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Kaziranga lies in a low-lying floodplain. During severe monsoon inundations, animals must migrate southward across the highway (NH-715) to reach the higher elevations of the Karbi Anglong Hills to escape drowning. Functional corridors are essential to prevent wildlife mortality and roadkill.

Topic 4: Brahmaputra Waterway (NW-2) & Regional Connectivity

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding National Waterway-2 (NW-2):

  1. It encompasses the Brahmaputra River stretching from Dhubri to Sadiya.
  2. It was declared a National Waterway under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
  3. Pandu, Silghat, and Bogibeel are important river terminals developed along this waterway.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 1 and 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: NW-2 covers the 891 km stretch of the Brahmaputra between Dhubri and Sadiya.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: NW-2 was declared a National Waterway back in 1988 under a dedicated statute, long before the consolidated National Waterways Act of 2016 (which added 106 new waterways to the existing 5).
  • Statement 3 is correct: Pandu (Guwahati), Silghat, Neamati, and Bogibeel (Dibrugarh) are key riverine terminals developed on NW-2.

Q14. With reference to the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), consider the following statements:

  1. It is an executive body created by a resolution of the Union Cabinet.
  2. It is responsible for the development, maintenance, and regulation of national waterways for shipping and navigation.
  3. It maintains fairway depth and operates round-the-clock navigational aids on designated national waterways.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None
Show answer

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: IWAI is a statutory body, set up under the Inland Waterways Authority of India Act, 1985.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct: IWAI is mandated to develop and maintain waterway infrastructure, perform fairway dredging, guarantee Least Available Depth (LAD), and deploy digital and physical navigation aids.

Q15. Consider the following pairs:

Port / TerminalAssociated Country / River Route
1. PangaonBangladesh (Inland Container Terminal)
2. MonglaBangladesh (Sea port utilized for Indian transit)
3. BogibeelAssam (NW-2 River Terminal)

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one pair
  • (b) Only two pairs
  • (c) All three pairs
  • (d) None of the pairs
Show answer

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  • Pair 1 is correctly matched: Pangaon is an Inland Container Depot/Port on the Buriganga/Dhaleshwari river network near Dhaka, Bangladesh.
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched: Mongla (along with Chattogram) is a major seaport in Bangladesh opened to India for transit cargo destined for the Northeast.
  • Pair 3 is correctly matched: Bogibeel (Dibrugarh, Upper Assam) has been developed as a river terminal on NW-2.

Q16. With reference to the Jalvahak Scheme launched by the Government of India, consider the following statements:

  1. It provides financial incentives to cargo owners and operators to encourage a modal shift of bulk cargo from rail/road to inland waterways.
  2. The incentives apply to eligible cargo movements along National Waterways connected via the Indo-Bangladesh Protocol Route.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Jalvahak Scheme was launched to promote inland water transit by offering up to a 35% reimbursement on operational expenditure for eligible long-haul voyages on NW-1 (Ganga), NW-2 (Brahmaputra), and NW-16 (Barak) utilizing the Indo-Bangladesh Protocol Route (IBPR). This lowers logistics costs and relieves congestion along the Siliguri Corridor.

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