APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –14/09/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (14-09-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 14/09/2026)
Topic 1: Assam’s Inter-State Border Disputes
Q1. With reference to inter-State disputes in India, consider the following statements:
- Article 131 of the Constitution confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in certain disputes between the Union and States or between two or more States.
- For a dispute to fall within Article 131, it must involve a question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
- Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council for, among other things, inquiring into and advising upon disputes between States.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation: Article 131 provides the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction in specified federal disputes involving legal rights. Article 263 provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council for coordination and advisory functions, including disputes between States.
Q2. With reference to the Assam–Arunachal Pradesh boundary dispute, consider the following statements:
- Assam and Arunachal Pradesh share a border of about 804.1 km.
- The Namsai Declaration was signed in July 2022.
- Twelve regional committees were constituted by the two States to facilitate resolution of boundary differences.
- The Namsai Declaration specifically initiated measures concerning 123 villages claimed by Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: All four statements are correct. The Assam Tribune specifically reported the 804.1-km border, 1,200 disputed points, 12 regional committees and the 15 July 2022 Namsai Declaration concerning 123 villages.
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam–Meghalaya boundary dispute:
- Assam and Meghalaya have identified 12 areas of difference along their inter-State boundary.
- An agreement was signed in 2022 for settlement of the first six areas.
- The first-phase settlement covered 36.79 sq km of disputed territory.
- Under the first phase, Assam received a larger share of the disputed area than Meghalaya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. In the first phase, Assam received 18.46 sq km, while Meghalaya received 18.33 sq km. Thus, statement 4 is technically true as well. Therefore, the correct answer is actually D.
Correct Answer: D
The newspaper reports 12 areas of difference, settlement of six in 2022, and a first-phase area of 36.79 sq km, divided as 18.46 sq km for Assam and 18.33 sq km for Meghalaya.
Q4. Consider the following pairs:
| State bordering Assam | Approximate length of boundary mentioned in the news |
| 1. Arunachal Pradesh | 804.1 km |
| 2. Nagaland | 512.1 km |
| 3. Meghalaya | 884.9 km |
| 4. Mizoram | 164.6 km |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: D
Explanation: All four are correctly matched according to the newspaper report.
Topic 2: 77% Decline in Terrorist Violence in Northeast
Q5. According to the report discussed in the news, which one of the following combinations is correct for the Northeast in 2025?
A. 33 terrorists neutralised; 1,066 insurgents apprehended; 117 surrendered; 4,336 weapons recovered
B. 26 terrorists neutralised; 1,024 insurgents apprehended; 111 surrendered; 542 weapons recovered
C. 33 terrorists neutralised; 1,066 insurgents surrendered; 117 apprehended; 4,336 weapons recovered
D. 77 terrorists neutralised; 1,066 insurgents apprehended; 117 surrendered; 4,336 weapons recovered
Answer: A
Explanation: The Assam Tribune’s report gives 33, 1,066, 117 and 4,336 respectively. Option B refers to a different official operational snapshot and should not be confused with the full-year figures reported in this article.
Q6. With reference to the Government’s counter-insurgency framework in Northeast India, consider the following statements:
- Security Related Expenditure (SRE) is a mechanism through which the Union Government supplements security-related expenditure of Northeastern States.
- The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 can be used against unlawful associations operating in the Northeast.
- AFSPA, 1958 is a constitutional provision contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: SRE and UAPA are components of the Government’s counter-insurgency framework. AFSPA is an ordinary parliamentary legislation, not a constitutional provision. The MHA identifies SRE, UAPA and AFSPA among its measures for the Northeast.
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the security geography of Northeast India:
- The Northeast shares international borders with Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar and China.
- The India–Myanmar border has significance for India’s internal security as well as its Act East policy.
- Border infrastructure in Arunachal Pradesh has both security and strategic-connectivity implications.
- The Northeast is geographically isolated from all major international connectivity corridors.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Northeast is strategically important precisely because of its international borders and its role in India’s Act East and connectivity initiatives. The MHA identifies Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar and China as neighbouring countries of the region.
Q8. Consider the following statements about India’s approach towards insurgency in Northeast India:
- The Government follows a combination of security operations and political dialogue.
- Surrender-cum-rehabilitation schemes seek to facilitate the reintegration of former insurgents.
- Civic Action Programmes are exclusively military operations and do not have a developmental or community-oriented component.
- Modernisation of State police forces is part of the broader security strategy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: The Government’s approach is explicitly multi-pronged, combining negotiations, counter-insurgency, SRE, police modernisation, surrender-rehabilitation and Civic Action Programmes. Statement 3 is incorrect because Civic Action has a community-oriented developmental dimension.
Topic 3: India–Bangladesh Relations — Ganga Water Treaty & Teesta
Q9. With reference to the India–Bangladesh Ganga Water Sharing Treaty, consider the following statements:
- It was signed in 1996.
- It governs sharing of Ganga waters at Farakka during the lean season.
- The sharing period specified in the treaty is from 1 January to 31 May.
- Water is allocated on a 10-daily basis according to the treaty’s formula.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: All four are correct. The treaty was signed on 12 December 1996, covers the lean season from 1 January to 31 May, and provides for sharing at Farakka on a 10-daily basis.
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Teesta River:
- The Teesta originates in Sikkim.
- It flows through West Bengal before entering Bangladesh.
- In Bangladesh, it is part of the Brahmaputra river system.
- The 2011 interim water-sharing arrangement between India and Bangladesh was ultimately signed and implemented.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect. The proposed interim arrangement was finalised in 2011 but was not signed, owing to opposition from the then West Bengal Government.
Q11. With reference to the institutional mechanism for the India–Bangladesh Ganga Water Sharing Treaty, consider the following statements:
- A Joint Committee monitors implementation of the treaty.
- Flow observations are associated with Farakka in India and Hardinge Bridge in Bangladesh.
- The treaty is based on a permanent allocation of Ganga waters irrespective of actual flow conditions.
- The treaty provides a formula for sharing based on the availability of water.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The treaty establishes a Joint Committee and uses flow data at Farakka and Hardinge Bridge. The sharing formula is linked to actual availability; it is not an unconditional fixed allocation irrespective of hydrological conditions.
Q12. With reference to the constitutional framework governing inter-State and international river-water issues in India, consider the following statements:
- Article 262 deals with adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys.
- Parliament may provide by law that courts shall not exercise jurisdiction over specified inter-State water disputes.
- Entry 56 of the Union List concerns regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys to the extent provided by Parliament.
- Article 131 is the specific constitutional provision exclusively dealing with inter-State river-water disputes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Articles 262 and Entry 56 of the Union List are central to inter-State river-water disputes. Article 131 deals more broadly with specified legal-right disputes between the Union and States/States; it is not exclusively a river-water provision.
Topic 4: India’s Semiconductor Ecosystem & SEMICON India 2026
Q13. With reference to the semiconductor value chain, consider the following statements:
- A semiconductor fabrication facility manufactures integrated circuits on semiconductor wafers.
- A fabless semiconductor company may design chips without owning a semiconductor fabrication plant.
- OSAT/ATMP activities broadly relate to assembly, testing and packaging of semiconductor devices.
- Semiconductor packaging has no significant impact on chip performance or thermal management.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Semiconductor packaging is technologically important for electrical connectivity, protection, thermal management and increasingly performance, making statement 4 incorrect.
Q14. With reference to Semicon 2.0, consider the following statements:
- It was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2026.
- It has a total budget outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore.
- Its approach extends beyond fabrication to areas such as semiconductor equipment, materials, advanced packaging, R&D and talent.
- It focuses exclusively on establishing semiconductor fabrication plants and does not cover chip design.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Semicon 2.0 was approved on 15 July 2026 with an outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore. It adopts a broader ecosystem approach covering design, equipment/materials, fabrication, advanced packaging, R&D and talent.
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding India’s semiconductor sector, as reported in the news:
- India has 3,557 companies in the semiconductor sector.
- The sector has attracted USD 1.4 billion in all-time equity funding across 281 funded companies.
- Bengaluru accounts for about 18% of the sector’s companies and 40.1% of equity funding raised to date.
- Electronic Manufacturing Services has been among the leading business models by funding since 2025.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: All four statements are supported by the newspaper report. It records 3,557 companies, USD 1.4 billion cumulative equity funding across 281 funded companies, Bengaluru’s approximately 18% company share and 40.1% funding share, and USD 313 million raised by Electronic Manufacturing Services since 2025.
Q16. With reference to SEMICON India 2026, consider the following statements:
- It is the fifth edition of SEMICON India.
- It is scheduled to be held at Yashobhoomi in New Delhi.
- Its theme is “Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem”.
- It is jointly organised by the India Semiconductor Mission and SEMI.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: All four are correct. SEMICON India 2026 is the fifth edition, scheduled for 17–19 September 2026 at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi, with the theme “Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem”, and is jointly organised by ISM and SEMI. The Assam Tribune independently reported the same venue and dates.
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