APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –07/09/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (07-09-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 07/09/2026)

Topic 1: Mizoram–Assam Border Dispute & Inter-State Relations

Q1. With reference to the constitutional and legal mechanisms for resolving inter-State boundary disputes in India, consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 131 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction to decide legal disputes between two or more States.
2. Parliament has the exclusive power under Article 3 of the Constitution to alter the boundaries of any State, even without the consent of the concerned State legislature.
3. The Inter-State Council established under Article 263 can render binding judicial awards on inter-State territorial disputes. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: A
• Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 131 vests original jurisdiction in the Supreme Court for disputes involving legal rights between States. Under Article 3, Parliament can redraw state boundaries; the view of the State Legislature must be sought by the President, but Parliament is not bound by it. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Inter-State Council under Article 263 is strictly an advisory and consultative body; it possesses no adjudicative power to issue binding awards.

Q2. With reference to the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR), 1873 and the Inner Line System, consider the following statements:

1. It was originally promulgated during colonial rule primarily to safeguard British commercial interests in tea, timber, and rubber from raids by hill tribes.
2. At present, the Inner Line Permit (ILP) system under the BEFR, 1873 is operational in Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Manipur.
3. The 1875 notification issued under this regulation forms the principal basis of Assam’s formal boundary claim against Mizoram. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: A
• Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. BEFR 1873 was enacted to regulate commercial interaction and protect British revenue interests by drawing an “Inner Line.” In December 2019, Manipur was officially brought under the ILP regime alongside Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1875 Inner Line notification is the basis of Mizoram’s historical claim, whereas Assam bases its official boundary position on the 1933 notification demarcating the Lushai Hills.

Q3. Consider the following pairs regarding the historical and geographic context of the Assam–Mizoram border:

1. Cachar, Hailakandi, and Karimganj — Assam districts sharing an inter-State border with Mizoram
2. 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1986 — Conferred full statehood on Mizoram
3. Lushai Hills District — Excluded Area under the Government of India Act, 1935 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

• Answer: C
• Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched. (1) Assam’s Barak Valley districts—Cachar, Hailakandi, and Karimganj—share the 164.6 km border with Mizoram. (2) The 53rd Amendment Act, 1986, following the Mizoram Accord, added Article 371G and paved the way for Mizoram’s full statehood on 20 February 1987. (3) Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Lushai Hills tract was classified as an “Excluded Area,” placing it directly under the discretionary authority of the Governor of Assam outside provincial ministry control.

Q4. With reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities and Inter-State coordination bodies, consider the following statements:

1. The office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional body created under Article 350B by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
2. The reports of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities are submitted directly to the Parliament by the officer.
3. Zonal Councils, unlike the Inter-State Council, are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: B
• Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Article 350B was added by the 7th Amendment (1956), creating the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities (CLM). Zonal Councils are statutory bodies set up under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, whereas the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body (Article 263). Statement 2 is incorrect because the Special Officer submits reports to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the concerned State governments.

Topic 2: India’s Semiconductor Push — From “Make in India” to “Engineer in India”

Q5. With reference to semiconductor materials and their physical properties, consider the following statements:

1. Wide Bandgap (WBG) semiconductors, such as Silicon Carbide (SiC) and Gallium Nitride (GaN), operate at higher voltages, temperatures, and frequencies than conventional Silicon.
2. Pure crystalline silicon is an intrinsic semiconductor whose electrical conductivity decreases as its temperature rises.
3. Electronic Design Automation (EDA) refers to software tools used to design, verify, and simulate integrated circuit layouts before fabrication. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: B
• Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. WBG materials like SiC and GaN possess larger energy bandgaps than silicon, allowing superior power efficiency in EVs, high-speed rail, and 5G/radar equipment. EDA software (e.g., Synopsys, Cadence) is indispensable for simulating complex microchips before physical etching. Statement 2 is incorrect because intrinsic semiconductors have a negative temperature coefficient of resistance; as temperature increases, more covalent bonds break, generating electron-hole pairs, which increases electrical conductivity.

Q6. Consider the following stages in the semiconductor production lifecycle:

1. Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT)
2. Wafer Ingot Slicing and Polishing
3. Photolithographic Circuit Printing (Wafer Fabrication)
4. Electronic Design Automation (EDA) Architecture Formulation Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the stages in chip production from conception to final deployment?

A. 4 — 2 — 3 — 1

B. 2 — 4 — 3 — 1

C. 4 — 3 — 2 — 1

D. 2 — 3 — 4 — 1

• Answer: A
• Explanation: The workflow begins with chip architecture design and software simulation using EDA tools (4). Separately, high-purity silicon is grown into cylindrical boules and sliced/polished into bare silicon wafers (2). The bare wafers then enter the foundry/fab for photolithography, deposition, and etching to fabricate billions of transistors onto the die (3). Finally, the processed wafer is diced, packaged, wired, and tested at an OSAT/ATMP facility before system integration (1).

Q7. With reference to semiconductor lithography and global technology supply chains, consider the following statements:

1. Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) lithography systems utilize light with a shorter wavelength than Deep Ultraviolet (DUV) systems to print narrower circuit features below the 7-nanometer node.
2. The commercial manufacturing of cutting-edge High-NA EUV lithography machines is dominated by a single Dutch firm, ASML.
3. Semiconductor fabrication requires Class 1 cleanroom environments, which limit airborne particulates to no more than one particle per cubic meter of air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: B
• Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. EUV uses a 13.5 nm light wavelength (versus 193 nm for immersion DUV), making it critical for sub-7nm and sub-3nm nodes. ASML (Netherlands) is the world’s sole commercial producer of EUV photolithography scanners. Statement 3 is incorrect because a standard ISO Class 1 / Class 1 cleanroom specification allows no more than 10 particles per cubic meter of size 0.1 µm or no more than 1 particle per cubic foot (under US FED-STD-209E standard), not one particle per cubic meter.

Q8. With reference to the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) and domestic semiconductor policy, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Government provides fiscal support of up to 50% of the project cost on an equal pari-passu basis for setting up Silicon Fabs, Display Fabs, and OSAT units.
2. The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme under the ISM is restricted exclusively to foreign fabless multinational corporations establishing captive R&D centers in India.
3. The Tata Electronics facility at Jagiroad in Assam is an advanced silicon wafer fabrication plant specializing in 3-nanometer logic chips. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: A
• Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: under the modified ISM framework, the Centre provides 50% uniform fiscal support across Silicon Fabs, Compound/Display Fabs, and ATMP/OSAT facilities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the DLI scheme specifically targets domestic domestic startups and MSMEs engaged in semiconductor design to nurture indigenous IP. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Jagiroad (Assam) project is an OSAT/ATMP (assembly, testing, packaging) unit utilizing Wire Bond and Flip Chip technologies, not a 3nm wafer fabrication plant (which is located in Dholera, Gujarat).

Topic 3: Mising Language, Indigenous Education & National Teachers’ Award

Q9. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following provisions specifically safeguard the educational and cultural rights of linguistic minorities?

1. Article 29 protects the right of any section of citizens residing in India having a distinct language, script, or culture to conserve the same.
2. Article 30 grants all minorities, whether based on religion or language, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
3. Article 350A obligates every State and local authority to endeavor to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: D
• Explanation: All three statements represent accurate constitutional provisions. Article 29 guarantees the conservation of distinct languages and scripts. Article 30 provides educational autonomy to religious and linguistic minorities. Article 350A (inserted by the 7th Amendment, 1956) directs States to endeavor to provide primary education in the mother tongue to linguistic minority groups.

Q10. With reference to the Mising community of Northeast India, consider the following statements:

1. The Mising language belongs to the Tibeto-Burman branch of the Sino-Tibetan language family.
2. Ali-Aye-Ligang is an agrarian spring festival celebrated by the Mising community marking the commencement of the Ahu paddy cultivation.
3. Traditional Mising houses, known as Chang ghar, are built on raised bamboo or timber stilts primarily as an architectural adaptation to frequent Brahmaputra floodings. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: D
• Explanation: All three statements are ethnographically and geographically correct. The Mising belong to the Tani group within the Tibeto-Burman linguistic family. Ali-Aye-Ligang (celebrated on the first Wednesday of the Phalguna month / February) is their key seed-sowing festival linked to Ahu paddy. Their stilt houses (Chang ghar) are an indigenous ecological and flood-resilience mechanism for dwelling in the Brahmaputra riparian plains.

Q11. Regarding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, consider the following statements:

1. NEP 2020 legally mandates that the mother tongue or regional language must be the sole medium of instruction across all private and public schools until Grade 8.
2. Section 29(2)(f) of the RTE Act, 2009 stipulates that the medium of instruction shall, as far as practicable, be in the child’s mother tongue.
3. The DIKSHA portal serves as the primary national digital platform supporting multilingual e-content and QR-coded energized textbooks under the PM e-VIDYA initiative. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: B
• Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The RTE Act 2009 under Section 29 encourages instruction in the mother tongue “as far as practicable,” and DIKSHA facilitates digital multi-format multilingual curricula. Statement 1 is incorrect because NEP 2020 is a policy framework, not a rigid statutory mandate; it strongly promotes/encourages mother tongue instruction up to Grade 5 (and preferably Grade 8) “wherever possible,” without prescribing exclusive, mandatory enforcement on private schools.

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework of education awards and governance in India:

1. The National Awards to Teachers were instituted in 1958 and are traditionally conferred annually on 5 September by the President of India.
2. Primary education in the mother tongue is a non-justiciable directive under Part IV of the Constitution, placed outside Part III and Part XVII.
3. The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is a statutory regulatory body created by an Act of Parliament to formulate textbooks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: A
• Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: the awards were instituted in 1958 and are presented on Teachers’ Day (5 September) under the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 350A is situated in Part XVII (Official Language – Special Directives), not Part IV. Statement 3 is incorrect because NCERT is an autonomous registered society under the Societies Registration Act (1860), not a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.

Topic 4: India as a Major Diesel Supplier to Europe & Energy Geopolitics

Q13. Consider the following pairs of strategic maritime chokepoints and the bodies of water they connect:

1. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait — Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
2. Strait of Hormuz — Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
3. Bosporus Strait — Black Sea and Sea of Azov
4. Strait of Malacca — Andaman Sea and South China Sea How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. Only three pairs

D. All four pairs

• Answer: C
• Explanation: Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because the Bosporus Strait connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara (the Kerch Strait connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Azov). Bab-el-Mandeb controls transit between the Horn of Africa and the Arabian Peninsula, linking the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden/Indian Ocean.

Q14. Which of the following countries share a direct coastline with the Red Sea?

1. Yemen
2. Djibouti
3. Eritrea
4. Oman
5. Jordan Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, and 3 only

B. 1, 3, and 5 only

C. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

• Answer: C
• Explanation: The littoral states of the Red Sea (including its northern arms, the Gulf of Aqaba and Gulf of Suez) are Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Sudan, Eritrea, Yemen, Djibouti (at the junction of Bab-el-Mandeb), and Jordan (access via the Gulf of Aqaba at Aqaba port). Israel also has coastline on the Gulf of Aqaba (Eilat). Oman borders the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Oman, and does not touch the Red Sea.

Q15. With reference to India’s petroleum trade dynamics and refining industry, consider the following statements:

1. India is the fourth-largest crude oil refiner in the world, with domestic refining capacity exceeding total domestic petroleum-product demand.
2. Refined petroleum products consistently rank among the top merchandise export items of India in terms of value.
3. To meet European winter demand, Indian refiners can export diesel derived from Russian Urals crude because crude oil undergoes substantial chemical transformation during refining. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: D
• Explanation: All statements are correct. India holds ~258.1 MTPA refining capacity (4th globally after US, China, Russia), creating an exportable surplus (Statement 1). Petroleum products are consistently India’s top or second-highest export earner (Statement 2). Under international rules of origin and EU sanction guidelines, refining crude oil into diesel represents a “substantial transformation” (changing tariff headings), legally permitting refined fuels processed in third countries like India to enter global markets (Statement 3).

Q16. With reference to India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) programme, consider the following statements:

1. Underground unlined rock caverns are utilized to store crude oil because of their high structural integrity and low vapor loss.
2. The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle functioning as a subsidiary of the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).
3. Existing Phase-I commercial-cum-strategic crude reserves are located at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, and Padur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. India uses underground unlined rock cavern technology (hydrocarbon containment through hydrostatic head) located at Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT), Mangaluru (1.5 MMT), and Padur (2.5 MMT). Statement 2 is incorrect because ISPRL is a Special Purpose Vehicle that is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Oil Industry Development Board (OIDB) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, not a subsidiary of ONGC

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