APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –04/09/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (04-09-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 04/09/2026)
Topic 1: Anti-Narcotics Task Force (ANTF) & Drug Menace in Assam
Q1. With reference to the Anti-Narcotics Task Force (ANTF), consider the following statements:
- The ANTF mechanism is intended to strengthen specialised enforcement against narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- Its effectiveness depends only on seizure of narcotic substances and does not require investigation of financial networks.
- Coordination among State Police and central enforcement agencies is important in tackling inter-State and cross-border drug trafficking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: ANTF is intended to strengthen specialised narcotics enforcement. Modern drug-control strategy increasingly focuses on trafficking networks and their financial flows, not merely seizures. Inter-State and inter-agency coordination is particularly important in Assam’s case. The Assam government has announced a dedicated ANTF within Assam Police.
Q2. With reference to the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, consider the following statements:
- The Act provides for control and regulation of operations relating to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- It contains provisions relating to forfeiture of property derived from illicit traffic in narcotic drugs.
- The Act deals exclusively with demand reduction and rehabilitation of drug users.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: The NDPS Act is primarily a comprehensive legal framework dealing with control, regulation and enforcement, including illicit trafficking and forfeiture of illicit assets. Demand reduction and rehabilitation involve a wider institutional framework beyond the NDPS Act.
Q3. Consider the following pairs:
| Drug-trafficking concern | Appropriate enforcement approach |
| 1. Cross-border trafficking | Intelligence sharing and border coordination |
| 2. Organised drug cartels | Financial investigation and asset seizure |
| 3. Drug addiction | Only criminal prosecution |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Drug control requires a supply-side + financial + public-health approach. Addiction cannot be addressed only through criminal prosecution; treatment, rehabilitation and demand reduction are also necessary.
Q4. With reference to drug trafficking in India’s Northeast, which one of the following best explains the strategic significance of Assam?
A. Assam’s location makes it completely isolated from international narcotics routes.
B. Assam can function as both a destination and transit corridor because of its connectivity with other Northeastern States.
C. Assam’s narcotics problem is confined exclusively to pharmaceutical drugs.
D. Drug trafficking in Assam is primarily an intra-district phenomenon without an interstate dimension.
Answer: B
Explanation: Assam’s geographical connectivity with several Northeastern States makes it strategically important for trafficking routes. The State has therefore emphasised coordination with neighbouring States and intelligence-led action.
Topic 2: Recurring Landslides in Assam & Disaster Vulnerability
Q5. With reference to landslides in Assam, consider the following statements:
- Prolonged or intense rainfall can act as a trigger for landslides.
- Deforestation and inappropriate land-use practices can increase slope vulnerability.
- Every landslide occurring during heavy rainfall can necessarily be attributed exclusively to climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Rainfall can trigger slope failure, while deforestation, hill cutting, drainage alteration and inappropriate land use can increase vulnerability. However, attributing an individual landslide exclusively to climate change is scientifically unjustified without event-specific assessment.
Q6. Consider the following sequence:
Prolonged rainfall → Soil saturation → Increase in pore-water pressure → Reduction in slope stability → Landslide
Which of the following best describes this sequence?
A. A possible physical mechanism of rainfall-induced slope failure
B. A mechanism of earthquake-induced liquefaction only
C. A process of river rejuvenation
D. A process of soil formation
Answer: A
Explanation: Rainfall infiltration can increase soil saturation and pore-water pressure, reducing effective stress and potentially destabilising a slope. This is an important Geography + Disaster Management linkage.
Q7. With reference to disaster management, consider the following statements:
- Hazard mapping alone is sufficient to eliminate disaster risk.
- Exposure and vulnerability determine how severely a hazard may affect a population.
- Early warning is effective only when warnings reach vulnerable communities and trigger appropriate action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: Mapping is only the first step. Disaster risk also depends upon exposure, vulnerability and coping capacity. An early-warning system must have a last-mile communication and response mechanism.
Q8. The Assam State Disaster Management Authority (ASDMA) has relevance in the management of landslide risk because it can be associated with which of the following?
- Hazard and vulnerability assessment
- Disaster preparedness and early warning
- Monitoring of risk-prone areas
- Scientific assessment of disaster-triggering factors
Select the correct answer using the code below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: ASDMA’s disaster-management responsibilities encompass hazard mapping, vulnerability assessment, monitoring, preparedness, warning dissemination and scientific assessment. The current Assam Tribune report also highlights the identification of 366 landslide-prone locations in Kamrup Metro.
Topic 3: Bharat NCAP 2.0 & Road Safety
Q9. With reference to Bharat NCAP, consider the following statements:
- It provides safety ratings based on crash tests and safety-performance assessments.
- It is voluntary in nature and operates beyond minimum regulatory requirements.
- It is applicable to all categories of motor vehicles irrespective of vehicle class and weight.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Bharat NCAP is a voluntary programme. Its present scope covers eligible M1-category vehicles up to 3.5 tonnes GVW, rather than all motor vehicles. It assesses areas including adult occupant protection, child occupant protection and safety-assist technologies.
Q10. With reference to Bharat NCAP and motor-vehicle regulation, consider the following statements:
- Regulatory standards establish minimum requirements for vehicles entering the road.
- NCAP assessments provide information about crashworthiness beyond minimum regulatory compliance.
- A vehicle complying with minimum regulatory standards necessarily receives a five-star NCAP rating.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: This is a key conceptual distinction. Roadworthiness/minimum regulatory compliance is not synonymous with crashworthiness or a high NCAP rating. Bharat NCAP provides consumers with comparative safety information beyond minimum regulatory requirements.
Q11. Consider the following components:
- Adult Occupant Protection
- Child Occupant Protection
- Safety Assist Technologies
- Political neutrality of the manufacturer
Which of the above are associated with the present Bharat NCAP assessment framework?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: BNCAP presently evaluates Adult Occupant Protection (AOP), Child Occupant Protection (COP) and Safety Assist Technologies (SAT). Political neutrality has no connection with vehicle safety assessment.
Q12. With reference to the proposed Bharat NCAP 2.0, consider the following statements:
- It is planned to expand vehicle-safety assessment towards the entire safety chain.
- Crash avoidance and post-crash safety are relevant to the broader proposed framework.
- The objective is limited to improving the comfort and fuel efficiency of vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: The Government has indicated that Bharat NCAP 2.0 is planned from October 2027 and will evaluate the entire safety chain. The present news report specifically highlights newer technologies and broader safety evaluation.
Topic 4: Social Media Code of Conduct for Government Officials
Q13. With reference to government servants and social-media conduct, consider the following statements:
- Freedom of speech available to government servants does not make them exempt from applicable service-conduct obligations.
- A dedicated social-media code would necessarily replace all existing service-conduct rules.
- Confidentiality obligations may continue to apply when an official uses social media in a personal capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Government employees remain subject to applicable service rules and confidentiality obligations. A proposed social-media code would supplement/clarify the existing framework rather than automatically replace all service-conduct rules. The current news concerns the possibility of a dedicated code because officials’ online conduct has created governance concerns.
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding social-media use by public servants:
- An official’s personal social-media post may be perceived as an official position because of the authority associated with the office held.
- Political neutrality is an important consideration in regulating conduct of public servants.
- Any restriction on social-media use by a public servant would automatically violate Article 19(1)(a).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: An officer’s designation can lend institutional credibility to personal statements. Political neutrality is central to civil-service conduct. However, Article 19(1)(a) is not absolute; restrictions may be permissible subject to constitutional and service-law requirements.
Q15. With reference to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, consider the following statements:
- They impose due-diligence obligations on specified intermediaries.
- They should not be equated with a comprehensive service-conduct code for government employees.
- Their regulatory framework has no relevance to synthetic or AI-generated information.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: The IT Rules establish obligations for digital intermediaries and other regulated entities; they are not a universal service code for government employees. Recent amendments have also addressed issues concerning synthetically generated information, including AI-generated/deepfake content.
Q16. A government officer posts a photograph on a personal social-media account showing an internal government document containing confidential information. Which of the following principles is most directly implicated?
A. Collective responsibility alone
B. Confidentiality and responsible use of official information
C. Judicial review of administrative action
D. Separation of powers
Answer: B
Explanation: Public servants may possess sensitive information by virtue of their office. Personal social-media use does not remove the obligation to protect confidential/official information. The issue primarily concerns integrity, confidentiality, accountability and responsible exercise of public office.
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