APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –02/09/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (02-09-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 02/09/2026)

Topic 1: Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) & Counter-Terrorism

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):

1. The Secretariat of the SCO and the Executive Committee of its Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) are both located in Beijing.
2. The SCO operates with two official working languages: Russian and Chinese.
3. Belarus became the tenth full member state of the organisation in 2024.
4. The SCO charter explicitly confers upon the grouping the status and obligations of a collective military defence alliance.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

• Answer: (b)
• Explanation:
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The official working languages are Russian and Chinese. Belarus formally became the 10th full member in 2024 (joining China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, Pakistan, and Iran).
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: While the SCO Secretariat is in Beijing (China), the Executive Committee of RATS is headquartered in Tashkent (Uzbekistan).
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The SCO explicitly maintains that it is not a military or collective defence alliance (unlike NATO).

Q2. With reference to the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) of the SCO, consider the following statements:

1. It is a permanent statutory organ of the SCO established to combat the “Three Evils” of terrorism, separatism, and extremism.
2. Participation in joint counter-terrorism exercises under RATS is restricted exclusively to the original five founding Central Asian members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Answer: (a)
• Explanation:
  • Statement 1 is correct: RATS was established in 2002 as a permanent organ to facilitate intelligence sharing, border coordination, and joint action against the “Three Evils” (Terrorism, Separatism, Extremism).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Joint counter-terror exercises under RATS (such as the “Peace Mission” drills) are open to all full members, including India, Pakistan, and Russia, not just founding Central Asian states.

Q3. Consider the following United Nations Security Council (UNSC) Resolutions:

1. UNSC Resolution 1373 (2001): Imposed comprehensive, legally binding obligations on member states to freeze terrorist financing, criminalize terrorist support, and deny safe havens.
2. UNSC Resolution 2462 (2019): Specifically focused on suppressing and criminalizing terrorist financing, requiring states to integrate financial intelligence into counter-terror operations.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Answer: (c)
• Explanation:
  • Both statements are correctly matched. UNSC Resolution 1373 was adopted post-9/11 under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, obligating states to disrupt terror financing and safe havens. Resolution 2462 (2019) expanded this framework to counter modern financial channels, including virtual assets and financial crimes linked to terrorism.

Q4. With reference to India’s engagement with the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements:

1. India was granted full membership in the SCO at the Astana Summit in 2017.
2. India’s conceptual vision for the SCO is formulated around three pillars: Security, Connectivity, and Opportunity.
3. India has supported the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) within joint SCO declarations since 2018.

How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

• Answer: (b)
• Explanation:
  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India (along with Pakistan) became a full member at the Astana Summit in 2017. India’s guiding doctrine within the forum is the “S-C-O” formula (Security, Connectivity, Opportunity).
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. India consistently refuses to endorse the BRI in SCO joint communiqués because the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) violates Indian sovereignty by traversing Pakistan-occupied Jammu & Kashmir (PoJK).

Topic 2: Indian Judiciary: Constitutional Jurisprudence & Institutions

Q5. With reference to the Law of Contempt of Court in India, consider the following statements:

1. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts derive their primary contempt powers directly from the Constitution of India.
2. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 makes no distinction between civil contempt and criminal contempt.
3. Fair, objective, and reasoned criticism of judicial acts does not amount to criminal contempt under Indian law.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: (c)
• Explanation:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Articles 129 and 215 designate the Supreme Court and High Courts as Courts of Record with inherent powers to punish for contempt.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 explicitly categorises contempt into Civil Contempt (wilful disobedience of court orders) and Criminal Contempt (scandalising the court, prejudicing proceedings, or obstructing justice).
  • Statement 3 is correct: Section 5 of the 1971 Act explicitly provides that fair and reasonable commentary on the merits of a decided case or judicial conduct does not constitute contempt.

Q6. Consider the following statements comparing writ jurisdiction under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Constitution of India:

1. While the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 32 is confined strictly to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, High Courts under Article 226 can issue writs for Fundamental Rights as well as “for any other purpose”.
2. The remedy under Article 32 is itself a guaranteed Fundamental Right, whereas the remedy under Article 226 is discretionary.
3. The territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is narrower than the territorial jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: (b)
• Explanation:
  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Article 32 is limited to Part III enforcement and is itself a fundamental right under Part III. Article 226 is broader in scope (“any other purpose”, e.g., ordinary legal rights) but is an extraordinary discretionary remedy.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court exercises writ jurisdiction throughout the territory of India, making its territorial reach substantially broader than that of any individual High Court.

Q7. In the context of constitutional jurisprudence, Article 142 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to: (a) Exercise original and exclusive jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and States.

(b) Pass any decree or order necessary for doing “complete justice” in any cause or matter pending before it.

(c) Tender advisory opinions to the President of India on questions of public importance.

(d) Transfer cases between different High Courts solely on recommendation of the Union Law Ministry.

• Answer: (b)
• Explanation:
  • Article 142(1) allows the Supreme Court to pass decrees or orders necessary to accomplish complete justice between parties where statutory law may be silent or inadequate. (Option (a) is Art. 131; Option (c) is Art. 143).

Q8. Which of the following constitutional provisions or principles directly provides for the institutional independence and functional separation of the Judiciary from the Executive in India? (a) Article 50 under the Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Article 131 under Original Jurisdiction

(c) Article 300A under Constitutional Rights

(d) Article 361 under Immunities and Privileges

• Answer: (a)
• Explanation:
  • Article 50 of the Constitution (Part IV, DPSP) explicitly directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Topic 3: Environmental Governance, Wetlands & Land-Use Planning

Q9. With reference to the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017, consider the following statements:

1. These rules were notified by the Central Government under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. The rules decentralized wetland administration by setting up a State Wetlands Authority (SWA) in each State and Union Territory.
3. Under the rules, river channels, paddy fields, and human-made water bodies constructed for aquaculture or drinking purposes are strictly defined and protected as natural wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: (a)
• Explanation:
  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The 2017 Rules were promulgated under Section 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, replacing the 2010 rules and creating State Wetland Authorities (SWAs) for localized governance.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2017 rules explicitly exclude river channels, paddy fields, human-made water bodies specifically constructed for drinking water, aquaculture, salt production, and irrigation from the formal definition of protected wetlands.

Q10. Under the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, the environmental clearance process for new developmental projects typically comprises which of the following sequential stages? (a) Scoping → Screening → Appraisal → Public Consultation

(b) Screening → Scoping → Public Consultation → Appraisal

(c) Public Consultation → Screening → Scoping → Appraisal

(d) Screening → Appraisal → Scoping → Public Consultation

• Answer: (b)
• Explanation:
  • As per the EIA Notification, 2006, the standard four-tier clearance cycle for Category ‘B’ developmental projects is:
    1. Screening (determining if EIA is needed),
    2. Scoping (formulating Terms of Reference),
    3. Public Consultation (soliciting local concerns),
    4. Appraisal (scrutiny by the Expert Appraisal Committee before grant/rejection).

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Land Policy, 2019:

1. It contains explicit provisions discouraging the ordinary allotment or settlement of prime agricultural land for industrial purposes.
2. It mandates the systematic surveying and mapping of land unsuitable for agriculture to establish designated industrial and institutional zones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Answer: (c)
• Explanation:
  • Both statements are correct. The Assam Land Policy (2019) focuses on preserving agrarian security by directing that arable farmland should not ordinarily be converted for industrial use, advocating instead for the identification and GIS-mapping of non-agricultural, barren tracts for industrial clusters and public infrastructure.

Q12. In environmental jurisprudence, the term “Eco-Sensitive Zones” (ESZs) around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries in India are notified under which statutory framework? (a) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

(b) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

(c) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(d) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002

• Answer: (c)
• Explanation:
  • Although declared around areas protected under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972, ESZs (shock-absorbers/buffer zones) are officially notified by the MoEFCC under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Topic 4: India–US Trade, Tariffs & Multilateral Trade Dynamics

Q13. In international trade, how do Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs) differ from conventional tariff measures?

1. Tariffs are direct price-based fiscal levies imposed at borders, whereas NTBs encompass qualitative regulations like Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT).
2. While tariffs generate direct customs revenue for the importing government, NTBs primarily increase compliance costs and administrative burdens for foreign exporters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Answer: (c)
• Explanation:
  • Both statements are correct. Tariffs are ad valorem or specific duties yielding public revenue. NTBs (e.g., certification rules, maximum residue limits, labeling rules, quotas) act as non-price restrictions that increase compliance friction without generating border tax revenues.

Q14. With reference to United States trade legislation, “Section 301” of the US Trade Act of 1974 is primarily utilized to: (a) Authorize the US Federal Reserve to manipulate foreign currency valuations.

(b) Enable unilateral trade investigations and impose retaliatory tariffs against countries engaging in unfair trade practices or violating labor/IP standards.

(c) Facilitate financial foreign aid and concessionary lines of credit to developing economies.

(d) Regulate domestic anti-dumping investigations exclusively conducted by the World Bank.

• Answer: (b)
• Explanation:
  • Section 301 grants the United States Trade Representative (USTR) broad statutory authority to investigate and unilaterally retaliate (via tariffs or import restrictions) against foreign trade practices deemed unreasonable, discriminatory, or burdensome to US commerce (e.g., intellectual property issues, digital service taxes, forced labour concerns).

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding the structural trends in India–US merchandise trade:

1. The United States is one of the few major economies with which India consistently maintains a merchandise trade surplus.
2. India’s export basket to the United States is heavily concentrated in labour-intensive sectors such as textiles, apparel, leather, gems and jewellery, and pharmaceuticals.
3. India and the United States have concluded a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA) that fully exempts all agricultural commodities from tariff barriers.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• Answer: (a)
• Explanation:
  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct: India maintains a consistent merchandise trade surplus with the US ($30–40+ billion annually), and key export sectors include apparel, gems, pharmaceuticals, and engineering goods.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India and the US do not have an operative full-fledged Free Trade Agreement; bilateral negotiations have focused on phased Interim Agreements and resolving market access disputes, particularly because agriculture remains highly protected on both sides.

Q16. With reference to trade facilitation and modern customs administration, the “Risk Management System” (RMS) implemented in cross-border cargo clearance is designed to:

(a) Subject 100% of incoming physical consignments to mandatory manual unpacking and laboratory testing.

(b) Selectively direct physical inspections and document checks toward high-risk consignments while allowing automatic clearance for compliant, low-risk cargo.

(c) Eliminate all tariff collection duties on goods imported from least-developed nations.

(d) Prohibit commercial vessels from docking without prior sanction from the World Trade Organization (WTO).

The Risk Management System (RMS) in modern customs (aligned with the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement) moves away from universal physical inspection. Instead, it utilizes data analytics to target risky, sensitive consignments for scanning and scrutiny, granting expedited “green channel” automatic clearance to verified, compliant traders.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Risk Management System (RMS) in modern customs (aligned with the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement) moves away from universal physical inspection. Instead, it utilizes data analytics to target risky, sensitive consignments for scanning and scrutiny, granting expedited “green channel” automatic clearance to verified, compliant traders.

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