APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –20/08/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (20-08-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 20/08/2026)
Topic1: Multi-hazard Early Warning System – LODESTAR
1. With reference to the LODESTAR initiative recently associated with Assam, consider the following statements:
- It is a multi-hazard early warning system.
- It seeks to combine real-time sensing with AI and process-based modelling.
- It is being developed under an India–Netherlands initiative.
- Its application is restricted exclusively to earthquake prediction.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: LODESTAR is designed as a low-cost, multi-hazard early warning system, integrating real-time data, AI, modelling and community inputs. It is associated with the India–Netherlands initiative. It is not restricted to earthquakes.
2. Consider the following components in the context of a modern multi-hazard early warning system:
- Hazard monitoring
- Risk assessment and forecasting
- Communication of warnings
- Last-mile dissemination and community response
Which of the above are essential components of an effective early warning system?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: A genuine early warning system is not merely a forecasting mechanism. It requires the entire chain—from hazard detection and forecasting to communication and effective last-mile response. This is particularly important in disaster-prone regions such as Assam.
3. With reference to the LODESTAR initiative, consider the following statements:
- Artificial Intelligence can help identify patterns in large volumes of real-time environmental data.
- Computer vision can potentially support automated interpretation of visual observations relevant to hazards.
- Process-based modelling seeks to represent the physical processes underlying a hazard rather than merely relying on historical correlations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation: All three correctly describe technologies relevant to modern early warning systems. Process-based models attempt to represent underlying physical processes, while AI and computer vision can enhance real-time detection and analysis. LODESTAR specifically brings together technical innovation, AI, process-based modelling, real-time sensing and citizen/community inputs.
4. Consider the following statements regarding multi-hazard early warning systems:
- They can reduce disaster losses even when the underlying hazard cannot be prevented.
- Their effectiveness depends partly on the accuracy and timeliness of forecasts.
- An early warning system is effective only if it predicts the exact location and intensity of a hazard with certainty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Early warning systems aim to reduce exposure and vulnerability through timely action; they do not need perfect prediction to save lives. Statement 3 is incorrect because forecasting inherently involves uncertainty.
Topic2: Porous India–Myanmar Border
5. With reference to India’s international borders, consider the following statements:
- India shares a land boundary with Myanmar through Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram.
- Assam shares an international boundary with Myanmar.
- The India–Myanmar land boundary is approximately 1,643 km long.
- The Golden Triangle is geographically associated with Myanmar, Thailand and Laos.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: India–Myanmar border extends about 1,643 km and touches Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram. Assam does not share an international boundary with Myanmar. The Golden Triangle refers broadly to the Myanmar–Thailand–Laos region. The newspaper also identifies the 1,643-km frontier and its four Indian States.
6. The term “Golden Triangle”, frequently encountered in discussions of India’s Northeast security, is primarily associated with:
A. A region of strategic mountain passes connecting India, Nepal and Bhutan
B. A region associated historically with production and trafficking of narcotic drugs in Southeast Asia
C. A trilateral economic corridor connecting India, Myanmar and Thailand
D. A maritime region connecting India, Myanmar and Indonesia
Answer: B
Explanation: The Golden Triangle broadly encompasses parts of Myanmar, Thailand and Laos and has historically been associated with illicit narcotics production and trafficking. Its proximity to India’s Northeast contributes to the region’s drug-trafficking and narco-terrorism concerns.
7. Consider the following statements regarding the India–Myanmar border:
- Difficult terrain contributes to the challenge of physically securing the entire border.
- Cross-border ethnic and familial linkages complicate a purely security-centric approach to border management.
- Drug trafficking from the Myanmar region can have implications for insurgency financing in Northeast India.
- Physical fencing alone can completely eliminate all forms of cross-border security threats.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Statements 1–3 are correct. The fourth is too absolute. Fencing can reduce unauthorised movement but cannot by itself eliminate insurgency, narcotics trafficking, cyber-enabled threats, drones or underground networks. The newspaper highlights insurgent camps, weaponised drones and the narco-terrorism nexus along the frontier.
8. With reference to the India–Myanmar Free Movement Regime (FMR), consider the following statements:
- It historically facilitated regulated movement of people living along the border who have traditional ethnic and social linkages.
- The earlier arrangement was associated with movement up to 16 km on either side of the border.
- India announced the decision to scrap the earlier FMR framework in 2024, citing security concerns.
- The FMR was established primarily to facilitate military movement between the Indian and Myanmar armies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: The FMR was intended to facilitate traditional cross-border movement of border communities, not military movement. The earlier arrangement was associated with movement within 16 km, and India announced its decision to scrap the earlier framework in 2024 amid security concerns.
Topic 3: NFR–Forest Department: Elephant Safety
9. With reference to the measures adopted by Indian Railways for preventing elephant–train collisions, consider the following statements:
- The Intrusion Detection System uses Distributed Acoustic System technology.
- The system can use optical fibre to detect signatures associated with elephant movement.
- Alerts can be communicated to loco pilots, station masters and railway control rooms.
- The system is based exclusively on satellite imagery.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: The AI-enabled IDS uses optical fibre and Distributed Acoustic System technology and is designed to generate real-time alerts for railway personnel. It is not based exclusively on satellite imagery. The Ministry of Railways has also confirmed that the system can alert loco pilots, station masters and control rooms.
10. The “Plan Bee” system, recently mentioned in the context of elephant conservation along railway tracks, is based on:
A. Deployment of trained honeybee colonies along railway tracks
B. Use of amplified honeybee sounds to deter elephants
C. Use of pheromone traps to redirect elephant herds
D. Release of artificial bee pheromones to attract elephants away from forests
Answer: B
Explanation: Plan Bee uses amplified honeybee sounds to deter elephants from vulnerable railway stretches. NFR has installed the system at identified locations.
11. Consider the following statements about elephant corridors:
- They facilitate movement between fragmented elephant habitats.
- Maintaining corridors can promote ecological connectivity.
- Blocking traditional corridors can potentially increase human–elephant conflict.
- Elephant corridors are legally identical to National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Elephant corridors are movement pathways connecting habitats; they are not necessarily legally equivalent to protected-area categories such as National Parks or Wildlife Sanctuaries. Their conservation is crucial for maintaining ecological connectivity and reducing conflict.
12. Consider the following statements:
- Project Elephant was launched in 1992.
- Asian Elephant is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- The Asian Elephant is included in Schedule I of India’s Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Project Elephant is administered by the Ministry of Railways because railway collisions are its principal conservation concern.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Project Elephant was launched in 1992 and addresses elephant conservation, habitat protection and human–elephant conflict. The Asian Elephant is Endangered under the IUCN Red List and receives the highest level of protection under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act. Project Elephant falls under the MoEFCC, not the Ministry of Railways.
Topic 4: RBI MPC: Wait-and-Watch Stance amid Inflation Risks
13. With reference to the August 2026 Monetary Policy Committee meeting of the RBI, consider the following statements:
- The policy repo rate was retained at 5.25%.
- The MPC retained a neutral policy stance.
- The decision to maintain the repo rate was unanimous.
- The RBI indicated that persistent food and fuel price pressures could create broader inflationary risks.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: The August 2026 MPC unanimously kept the repo rate at 5.25% and retained the neutral stance. The subsequent minutes highlighted risks from food, fuel and other input prices and the possibility of broader inflationary pressures.
14. Consider the following statements regarding inflation targeting in India:
- The RBI’s flexible inflation-targeting framework uses CPI inflation as the nominal anchor.
- The inflation target is 4%, with a tolerance band of ±2 percentage points.
- Food and fuel prices are completely excluded from CPI inflation.
- Persistent supply-side inflation can create second-round effects on broader inflation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: India uses CPI inflation as the nominal anchor under flexible inflation targeting, with a target of 4% ±2 percentage points. Food and fuel are included in headline CPI. Persistent increases in these prices can influence inflation expectations, wages and input costs, producing second-round effects.
15. If the RBI raises the policy repo rate, which of the following are the most likely immediate effects?
- Increase in the cost of borrowing for banks.
- Tighter monetary conditions.
- Downward pressure on aggregate demand, other things remaining equal.
- Automatic increase in government capital expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: A repo-rate increase generally tightens monetary conditions, raises the cost of short-term funds and can reduce credit demand and aggregate demand. It does not automatically increase government capital expenditure.
16. Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India:
- The MPC has six members.
- Three members are from the RBI and three are external members appointed by the Central Government.
- The RBI Governor has a casting vote in case of a tie.
- The MPC determines the minimum support price for agricultural commodities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: The MPC has six members—three from the RBI and three external members appointed by the Central Government. Each member has one vote, and the RBI Governor has a casting vote in case of a tie. MSP determination is a separate government policy process and is not an MPC function.
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