APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –14/08/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (14-08-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 14/08/2026)
Topic 1: Census 2027: Census, Demography & Deployment of Teachers
Q1. With reference to the Census of India, consider the following statements:
- The Census of India is conducted under the Census Act, 1948.
- The Census of India is a constitutional exercise conducted directly under a specific provision of the Constitution.
- Census 2027 is proposed to incorporate Self-Enumeration as part of the census process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: The Census has a statutory basis under the Census Act, 1948; it is not directly mandated by a specific constitutional article. Census 2027 introduces Self-Enumeration as part of the process.
Q2. With reference to Census 2027, consider the following statements:
- It will be India’s first digital Census.
- Self-Enumeration will completely replace door-to-door enumeration.
- Caste enumeration is proposed to be undertaken during the population-enumeration phase.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Census 2027 represents a major digital transition and includes Self-Enumeration, but this does not eliminate field enumeration. Caste enumeration is included in the population-enumeration phase.
Q3. The recent controversy in Assam regarding deployment of teachers for Census duties primarily highlights which one of the following governance issues?
A. Conflict between population enumeration and continuity of essential public services
B. Constitutional prohibition on assigning teachers to non-teaching duties
C. Complete privatisation of census operations
D. Transfer of Census powers from the Union to local governments
Answer: A
Explanation: The Assam issue concerns the possibility that deployment of teachers as Census personnel could disrupt regular classroom teaching and examinations. The newspaper specifically reported AASU’s demand for a mechanism to ensure that classes continue during the Census exercise.
Q4. Consider the following pairs:
| Census-related mechanism | Primary purpose |
| 1. Self-Enumeration | Digital submission of information by respondents |
| 2. House Listing & Housing Census | Collection of information about houses and household-level housing conditions |
| 3. Population Enumeration | Collection of individual-level demographic information |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation: All three are correctly matched. Census 2027 uses a two-phase structure involving Houselisting & Housing Census followed by Population Enumeration, while Self-Enumeration provides a digital mechanism for respondents.
Topic 2: Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (NdFeB) Manufacturing Scheme
Q5. With reference to India’s Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPM), consider the following statements:
- The scheme has a total outlay of ₹7,280 crore.
- It aims to establish 6,000 metric tonnes per annum of integrated REPM manufacturing capacity.
- The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
- It is restricted only to magnets used in consumer electronics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: The scheme has an outlay of ₹7,280 crore and targets 6,000 MTPA of integrated REPM capacity. It is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Applications extend to strategic sectors such as automobiles, renewable energy, aerospace and defence.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding NdFeB magnets:
- NdFeB stands for Neodymium-Iron-Boron.
- NdFeB magnets are permanent magnets.
- Their applications can include electric vehicles and wind-energy technologies.
- Neodymium is not a rare-earth element.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: NdFeB means Neodymium-Iron-Boron and is a high-performance permanent-magnet material. Such magnets are important in EVs, renewable-energy technologies and several advanced applications. Neodymium is a rare-earth element, making Statement 4 incorrect.
Q7. Which one of the following best explains the strategic significance of India’s Rare Earth Permanent Magnet Manufacturing Scheme?
A. It seeks to move India from dependence on imported finished magnets towards an integrated domestic manufacturing value chain.
B. It seeks to prohibit all imports of rare-earth minerals into India.
C. It focuses exclusively on increasing India’s crude-oil production.
D. It replaces the National Critical Mineral Mission with a separate mineral-exploration framework.
Answer: A
Explanation: The scheme is designed to establish an integrated REPM ecosystem, covering the value chain from rare-earth oxides to finished magnets. Its importance lies in reducing supply-chain vulnerabilities in strategic industries.
Q8. Consider the following sectors:
- Electric mobility
- Renewable energy
- Aerospace
- Defence
- Consumer electronics
How many of the above can potentially benefit from the development of domestic NdFeB permanent-magnet manufacturing capacity?
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. All five
Answer: D
Explanation: High-performance permanent magnets have applications across EVs, renewable-energy technologies, electronics, aerospace and defence. Hence, domestic REPM production has both economic and strategic significance.
Topic 3: Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards 2024–25 & Assamese Cultural Representation
Q9. With reference to the Sangeet Natak Akademi, consider the following statements:
- It is India’s national academy for music, dance and drama.
- It functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- The Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship is known as Akademi Ratna.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar is exclusively meant for classical vocal music.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Sangeet Natak Akademi is India’s national academy for music, dance and drama under the Ministry of Culture. Its Fellowship is known as Akademi Ratna. The Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar covers young talent across several performing-art forms, not merely classical vocal music.
Q10. Consider the following pairs relating to the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards 2024–25:
| Artist | Field |
| 1. Chetana Das | Acting |
| 2. Mallika Kandali | Sattriya Dance |
| 3. Bhaskar Jyoti Oja | Music for Dance – Sattriya |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation: All three are correctly matched according to the official 2024–25 award list. The Assam Tribune also highlighted Chetana Das receiving the honour at the Presidential ceremony.
Q11. Sattriya, which has received national recognition through Sangeet Natak Akademi awards, is most closely associated with which of the following historical-cultural developments?
A. Neo-Vaishnavite movement of Assam
B. Bhakti movement centred exclusively in Maharashtra
C. Buddhist monastic traditions of Ladakh
D. Shaiva traditions of Kashmir
Answer: A
Explanation: Sattriya developed within Assam’s neo-Vaishnavite cultural tradition, particularly through the institutions of the Sattras associated with Srimanta Sankardev and his religious-cultural movement.
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the Sangeet Natak Akademi:
- Akademi Ratna refers to the Fellowship of the Akademi.
- Akademi Puraskar recognises achievement in performing arts.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar is a youth-oriented recognition.
- All three honours are constitutional awards established directly by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: The first three statements are correct. These are institutional/national cultural honours, not constitutional awards. The distinction between constitutional, statutory and institutional awards is a useful UPSC elimination concept.
Topic 4: NITI Aayog: Four Sectors for India as a Global Manufacturing Hub
Q13. NITI Aayog’s recent report titled Key Sectors to Position India as a Global Manufacturing Hub identifies which of the following sectors?
- Chemicals
- Textiles
- Telecom and networking equipment
- Solar photovoltaic manufacturing
- Automobiles
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 5 only
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: A
Explanation: The report focuses on four sectors: Chemicals, Textiles, Telecom & Networking Equipment, and Solar PV manufacturing. Automobiles are not one of the four sectors covered in this particular report.
Q14. Consider the following statements about the four sectors identified by NITI Aayog:
- The selection is intended to strengthen domestic capabilities and value addition.
- The report considers India’s position in global value chains.
- The report focuses exclusively on sectors where India is already the world’s largest producer.
- Export-oriented manufacturing is among the objectives of the proposed interventions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: NITI Aayog’s framework examines market potential, infrastructure readiness, policy support, raw-material availability, technology readiness, employment potential and India’s position in global value chains. It aims to strengthen domestic capabilities, increase value addition and accelerate export-oriented manufacturing.
Q15. With reference to India’s manufacturing strategy, consider the following statements:
- Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes are linked to production/sales performance in selected sectors.
- The National Manufacturing Mission seeks to improve India’s manufacturing ecosystem.
- Participation in global value chains necessarily implies complete elimination of imports.
- Domestic value addition is an important component of manufacturing competitiveness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: PLI is designed to incentivise incremental production/sales in selected sectors. The National Manufacturing Mission seeks to strengthen manufacturing. Global value-chain integration does not mean eliminating imports; rather, it involves participating efficiently in international production networks. Domestic value addition is important for competitiveness.
Q16. Which one of the following best captures the common strategic rationale behind NITI Aayog’s identification of chemicals, textiles, telecom and networking equipment, and solar PV manufacturing?
A. Combining domestic market potential with value addition, technology, employment and integration into global value chains
B. Replacing all service-sector activities with manufacturing
C. Restricting foreign investment in strategic manufacturing sectors
D. Promoting manufacturing exclusively for domestic consumption
Answer: A
Explanation: The report’s central approach is to identify sectors where targeted interventions can strengthen domestic capabilities, enhance competitiveness and value addition, and accelerate export-oriented manufacturing. It explicitly considers India’s position in global value chains.
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