APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –12/08/2026
For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (12-08-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.
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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 12/08/2026)
Topic 1: 11 New Doppler Weather Radars in Northeast India & Assam
Q1. With reference to Doppler Weather Radar (DWR), consider the following statements:
- DWR can provide information on the radial velocity of precipitation particles.
- Reflectivity obtained from weather radar can provide information about the intensity of precipitation.
- DWR directly measures the complete three-dimensional wind vector at every point within its coverage area.
- DWR observations can be used for nowcasting of severe weather events.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: DWR provides reflectivity and radial velocity and is highly useful for nowcasting. However, it does not directly measure the complete three-dimensional wind vector everywhere; Doppler velocity is fundamentally along the radar beam.
Q2. With reference to the proposed expansion of Doppler Weather Radar coverage in Northeast India, consider the following pairs:
| Location | State |
| 1. Jorhat | Assam |
| 2. Tezpur | Assam |
| 3. Namsai | Arunachal Pradesh |
| 4. Kohima | Meghalaya |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Jorhat and Tezpur are in Assam, while Namsai is in Arunachal Pradesh. Kohima is in Nagaland, not Meghalaya. The newspaper reports the proposed radar expansion at these locations.
Q3. Which one of the following best explains the importance of Doppler Weather Radars for flood and disaster management in Assam?
A. They replace river gauges by directly measuring river discharge.
B. They provide continuous observations of precipitation and atmospheric motion useful for short-range forecasting and warnings.
C. They eliminate the need for satellite-based meteorological observations.
D. They predict seasonal monsoon rainfall several months in advance with high spatial precision.
Answer: B
Explanation: DWRs are particularly useful for near-real-time precipitation monitoring and nowcasting, helping authorities prepare for intense rainfall, thunderstorms and flash-flood-producing events. They complement rather than replace river gauges and satellites.
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding weather radar bands:
- S-band radars generally have longer wavelengths than C-band radars.
- X-band radars generally operate at higher frequencies than C-band radars.
- A higher-frequency radar is necessarily superior to a lower-frequency radar for all meteorological applications.
- Radar-band selection involves a trade-off between range, resolution and application requirements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: S-band has longer wavelengths than C-band, while X-band has higher frequency. But no radar band is universally superior; selection depends on range, resolution, terrain and intended application.
Topic 2: Assam–Arunachal Pradesh Border Dispute & Recent Tension
Q5. With reference to the Assam–Arunachal Pradesh boundary dispute, consider the following statements:
- It is an inter-State boundary dispute within the constitutional framework of India.
- The dispute has a significant judicial dimension before the Supreme Court.
- The Namsai Declaration was signed in 2022.
- The dispute concerns an international boundary between India and another sovereign country.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Assam–Arunachal is an inter-State, not international, boundary dispute. The issue has been before the Supreme Court, and the Namsai Declaration was signed in July 2022.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam–Arunachal Pradesh boundary settlement process:
- The Namsai Declaration was signed in 2022.
- Twelve Regional Committees were constituted for joint verification.
- The process involved reducing the number of disputed/claimed villages from 123 to 86.
- The 2023 MoU completely settled all 123 villages without requiring further demarcation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: The Namsai process involved 12 Regional Committees and reduced the number of villages under consideration from 123 to 86. The 2023 MoU represented major progress but did not mean that every aspect of ground-level demarcation was automatically completed.
Q7. With reference to inter-State boundary disputes in India, consider the following statements:
- Article 3 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to alter the boundaries of States.
- A Bill affecting the area, boundaries or name of a State requires the President to refer it to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views.
- The views of the concerned State Legislature are binding on Parliament.
- An inter-State boundary dispute is necessarily resolved through an international treaty.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 3 gives Parliament the power to alter State boundaries. The concerned State Legislature is consulted for its views, but those views are not binding on Parliament. An inter-State dispute is not an international treaty matter.
Q8. The recent recurrence of localised tension along the Assam–Arunachal boundary, despite progress under the 2023 settlement framework, most directly highlights which one of the following governance challenges?
A. Difference between political agreement and ground-level implementation
B. Inability of Parliament to legislate on State boundaries
C. Absence of judicial jurisdiction over inter-State disputes
D. Conversion of all inter-State boundaries into international borders
Answer: A
Explanation: A political agreement does not automatically resolve physical demarcation, local land claims, administrative ambiguity and community-level tensions. Effective implementation and local confidence-building remain essential.
Topic 3: Small Tea Growers & Quality of Assam Tea
Q9. With reference to Maximum Residue Limits (MRLs) in food safety, consider the following statements:
- An MRL represents the maximum legally permitted concentration of a pesticide residue in or on a food commodity under specified conditions.
- Registration or authorised use of a pesticide and establishment of an MRL are conceptually identical regulatory processes.
- A pesticide may have an authorised agricultural use while questions regarding its applicable food-commodity MRL may still arise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: MRL concerns food-safety residue levels. Pesticide registration/authorised use and food MRL determination are distinct regulatory matters. This distinction is central to the current tea-residue issue.
Q10. In the context of the FSSAI direction concerning pesticide testing in tea, which one of the following sets contains only pesticides specifically mentioned in the March 2024 direction discussed in the current-affairs report?
A. Acephate, Acetamiprid, Dinotefuran and Fipronil
B. Monocrotophos, Glyphosate, Dinotefuran and Fipronil
C. Paraquat, Acephate, Monocrotophos and Acetamiprid
D. Glyphosate, Paraquat, Imidacloprid and Monocrotophos
Answer: A
Explanation: The six pesticides specified in the direction were Cypermethrin, Acephate, Imidacloprid, Acetamiprid, Dinotefuran and Fipronil. Monocrotophos should not be confused with this six-pesticide list.
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Small Tea Growers (STGs) in Assam:
- They supply green tea leaf to processing units including Bought Leaf Factories.
- Their increasing importance has made them an important component of Assam’s tea economy.
- Their fragmented and relatively small holdings can create challenges in accessing technology, quality control and extension services.
- Small Tea Growers necessarily undertake the complete process of manufacturing, packaging and marketing tea themselves.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: STGs commonly produce green leaf, which may be processed by Bought Leaf Factories or other processing units. They do not necessarily undertake the entire value chain themselves. Their fragmented structure also creates challenges in quality management and bargaining power.
Q12. With reference to the Assam tea controversy, consider the following statements:
- Blending of teas from different origins is inherently illegal.
- Misrepresentation of the geographical origin of a tea product can raise consumer-protection and market-integrity concerns.
- Traceability can help identify the source of quality or residue-related problems.
- Quality certification can contribute to consumer confidence and brand protection.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation: Blending itself is not inherently illegal. The concern arises when blending involves fraudulent or misleading representation of origin/quality. Traceability and certification can strengthen market integrity.
Topic 4: Assam Satellite City near Guwahati Airport
Q13. With reference to the proposed satellite city near Guwahati Airport, consider the following statements:
- The Assam Cabinet approved ₹2,100 crore for land acquisition.
- The reported estimated cost of land acquisition is around ₹4,000 crore.
- The project is intended to function only as a residential extension of Guwahati.
- Its airport-linked location provides scope for logistics, services and other economic activities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation: The ₹2,100 crore is for land acquisition, while the newspaper reports total land-acquisition cost of about ₹4,000 crore. An airport-centred development can support logistics, tourism, services and other economic activities. It should not be viewed merely as a residential extension.
Q14. Consider the following pairs:
| Concept | Description |
| 1. Satellite City | Planned urban centre developed around/near a major city to decentralise growth |
| 2. Aerotropolis | Urban-economic development centred on an airport |
| 3. Transit-Oriented Development | Urban development organised around mass/public transport |
| 4. Urban Sprawl | Compact, high-density development around public transport nodes |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Pair 4 is incorrect. Urban sprawl refers to generally dispersed, outward and often poorly planned urban expansion, rather than compact transit-oriented development.
Q15. With reference to land pooling as an instrument of urban development, consider the following statements:
- It can allow multiple landowners to participate collectively in planned development.
- It can reduce the need for conventional compulsory acquisition in suitable circumstances.
- It necessarily means that landowners receive no benefit from subsequent development.
- It can facilitate provision of roads and other planned infrastructure over a consolidated area.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation: Land pooling is based on collective participation and benefit sharing. Properly designed schemes can facilitate planned infrastructure and reduce fragmented development. Landowners are not necessarily deprived of benefits; the precise mechanism depends on the policy framework.
Q16. Consider the following as potential consequences of poorly planned expansion of a satellite city near a flood-prone metropolitan area:
- Increased surface runoff due to expansion of impervious surfaces
- Encroachment or degradation of wetlands
- Increased urban heat-island effect
- Automatic reduction in urban flood risk merely because development occurs outside the existing city core
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Poorly planned urban expansion can increase runoff, degrade wetlands and intensify heat-island effects. Simply shifting development outside the existing city does not automatically reduce flood risk. For Assam, ecological and hydrological planning must be integral to satellite-city development.
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