APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –11/08/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (11-08-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 11/08/2026)

Topic 1: Border Development vs National Security: Renewable Energy Restrictions & the Development Imperative

Q1. With reference to the recent restrictions on renewable-energy projects in India’s border areas, consider the following statements:

  1. New solar, wind and hybrid renewable-energy projects are prohibited within 1 km of the International Border, Line of Control and Line of Actual Control.
  2. Renewable-energy projects proposed between 1 km and 50 km from these borders require security clearance from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  3. The restrictions apply only to projects located along the Line of Actual Control and not to the International Border.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: The recent MHA guidelines prohibit new solar, wind and hybrid renewable projects within 1 km of the International Border, LoC and LAC. Projects in the 1–50 km zone require security clearance. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.


Q2. Consider the following pairs:

Border/ZoneAssociated security consideration
1. International BorderCross-border security
2. Line of ControlIndia–Pakistan controlled boundary
3. Line of Actual ControlIndia–China effective military control line

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: All three are correctly matched. The International Boundary is the recognised international boundary; the LoC separates Indian- and Pakistan-controlled areas in Jammu & Kashmir; and the LAC broadly represents the line separating Indian- and Chinese-controlled territories.


Q3. The recent renewable-energy restrictions in border areas most directly represent which one of the following principles of public policy?

A. Absolute primacy of economic development over security considerations
B. Balancing developmental objectives with national-security imperatives
C. Replacement of renewable energy by fossil-fuel-based generation
D. Complete decentralisation of energy-sector regulation to border States

Answer: B

Explanation: The policy does not prohibit renewable energy generally. It creates security-related restrictions in sensitive border zones while allowing projects farther away subject to clearances. The central policy dilemma is therefore development–security balancing.


Q4. Consider the following statements regarding renewable-energy projects in border areas:

  1. A renewable-energy installation can have security implications because of its location, physical infrastructure and associated communication or transmission facilities.
  2. Security clearance requirements necessarily imply that renewable-energy development is constitutionally prohibited in border States.
  3. Border infrastructure can simultaneously contribute to civilian development and national security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. Security clearance is a regulatory mechanism, not a constitutional prohibition on renewable energy in border States. Border infrastructure can support roads, communications, logistics and local economic activity while also strengthening strategic presence.


Topic 2: Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council (RHAC) & Demand for Sixth Schedule Inclusion

Q5. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. It provides for Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils.
  2. It applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  3. Its constitutional basis is Article 244(2).
  4. It applies uniformly to all Scheduled Areas in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides autonomous arrangements for specified tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram under Article 244(2). Statement 4 is incorrect because Scheduled Areas generally fall under the Fifth Schedule, not the Sixth Schedule.


Q6. Consider the following pairs:

Constitutional provisionSubject
1. Article 244(1)Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes under the Fifth Schedule
2. Article 244(2)Administration of tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule
3. Article 275(1)Grants-in-aid from the Union for specified purposes including tribal welfare

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: All three are correctly matched. Article 244(1) relates to the Fifth Schedule, while Article 244(2) relates to Sixth Schedule areas. Article 275(1) provides for grants-in-aid from the Union for specified purposes, including promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and improving administration in Scheduled and tribal areas.


Q7. With reference to Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:

  1. They are constitutional institutions rather than institutions created solely by ordinary State legislation.
  2. They may exercise legislative powers over specified subjects within their jurisdiction, subject to the constitutional framework.
  3. They are completely independent of the Governor and State Government.
  4. Their institutional design reflects the principle of asymmetric federalism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Sixth Schedule councils enjoy constitutionally recognised autonomous powers, including specified legislative powers. They are not completely independent of the Governor or State Government; the Schedule provides important supervisory and regulatory roles.


Q8. Which one of the following best explains the relevance of the Sixth Schedule to the demand for greater autonomy by tribal communities in Northeast India?

A. It establishes a separate sovereign government for tribal areas.
B. It provides constitutionally recognised institutions for autonomous administration of specified tribal areas.
C. It abolishes the legislative authority of the concerned State Government over tribal areas.
D. It converts all tribal communities of the Northeast into Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution.

Answer: B

Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides a framework of autonomous administration within the Indian constitutional system. It does not create sovereignty or completely remove the State Government’s authority.

Prelims Trap

Autonomy sovereignty.
The Sixth Schedule represents constitutional accommodation within the Union of India, not a separate sovereign governmental system.


Topic 3: India’s Russian Crude Oil Imports

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding India’s crude-oil imports from Russia:

  1. The increase in Russian crude imports after 2022 was influenced partly by the availability of Russian crude at competitive prices following Western sanctions.
  2. India’s purchase of Russian crude necessarily implies that India has withdrawn from cooperation with Western countries in the energy sector.
  3. India’s ability to process different grades of crude enhances the economic significance of diversified crude sourcing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. India has continued extensive economic, strategic and technological engagement with Western countries while maintaining energy ties with Russia. India’s refining capacity makes crude diversification and price differentials particularly significant.


Q10. Consider the following statements about the oil price-cap mechanism imposed on Russian oil:

  1. The mechanism seeks to limit Russia’s oil revenues while keeping Russian oil available in international markets.
  2. A price cap is identical to a complete embargo on Russian oil.
  3. Shipping, insurance and financial services can become relevant to the implementation of a price-cap regime.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: A price cap is not the same as an embargo. The mechanism attempts to constrain Russia’s oil revenue while preventing a complete disruption of global oil supply. Shipping, insurance and financial services are important because the sanctions architecture can condition access to such services.


Q11. Which of the following are dimensions of India’s energy security?

  1. Availability of energy supplies
  2. Affordability of energy
  3. Diversification of sources and suppliers
  4. Resilience against geopolitical disruptions
  5. Complete elimination of fossil fuels in the immediate term

Select the correct answer using the code below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 5 only
C. 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

Explanation: Energy security involves availability, affordability, accessibility, reliability, resilience and diversification. The immediate elimination of all fossil fuels is neither a necessary nor a defining condition of energy security.


Q12. With reference to India’s strategic petroleum reserves (SPRs), consider the following statements:

  1. SPRs are intended to provide a buffer against major disruptions in crude-oil supplies.
  2. SPRs eliminate India’s structural dependence on imported crude oil.
  3. SPRs are an instrument of energy-security policy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: SPRs provide a strategic buffer during supply disruptions. They do not eliminate India’s structural import dependence. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Energy security energy self-sufficiency.

A country can improve energy security through diversified imports, strategic reserves, domestic production and transition to renewables, even while remaining an importer.


Topic 4: Non-Timber Forest Products (NTFPs) & Tribal Livelihoods in Northeast India

Q13. With reference to Non-Timber Forest Products (NTFPs), consider the following statements:

  1. NTFPs are forest-derived products other than timber.
  2. NTFPs can contribute to both household subsistence and cash income.
  3. Sustainable NTFP harvesting can potentially create an economic incentive for biodiversity conservation.
  4. All NTFPs are necessarily collected without causing any ecological impact.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: NTFPs can provide food, medicine and income and can support conservation when sustainably managed. However, overharvesting can cause ecological degradation, making Statement 4 incorrect.


Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Forest Rights Act, 2006:

  1. It recognises certain rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
  2. The Act recognises rights relating to the collection, use and disposal of minor forest produce traditionally collected.
  3. The Act grants unrestricted commercial exploitation of all forest resources to forest-dwelling communities.
  4. Gram Sabhas have an important role in the recognition of forest rights under the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: The Forest Rights Act recognises specified individual and community forest rights, including rights concerning minor forest produce. It does not provide unrestricted commercial exploitation of all forest resources. The Gram Sabha has a central role in initiating the process of determining rights.


Q15. Consider the following pairs related to NTFPs and tribal livelihoods:

DimensionPossible contribution
1. Food securityDietary supplementation
2. Traditional medicineTherapeutic use
3. Livelihood diversificationSupplementary household income
4. Value additionRural entrepreneurship

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation: All four represent important livelihood dimensions of NTFPs. The current study reported that most identified NTFPs were used for nourishment, followed by therapeutic purposes, while surplus products were sold in local markets. It also highlighted entrepreneurship and additional income opportunities.


Q16. With reference to the recent study on NTFPs in Northeast India, consider the following statements:

  1. The study covered villages in Nagaland and Meghalaya.
  2. It identified 47 plant- and animal-based NTFPs.
  3. It covered 20 villages and 250 households.
  4. The study concluded that NTFP utilisation should be expanded commercially without ecological assessment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: The study covered 20 villages and 250 households in Nagaland and Meghalaya and identified 47 NTFPs. It actually emphasised the need for ecological assessments, structured harvesting guidelines and sustainable utilisation, making Statement 4 the opposite of the study’s conclusion.

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