APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions based on Assam Tribune (Daily) –29/06/2026

For APSC CCE and other Assam Competitive examinations aspirants, practicing Daily MCQs is vital. This blog covers most important Prelims questions from the Assam Tribune today (29-06-2026). These issues are key for both APSC Prelims syllabus, offering insights into the important topics of current affairs.

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APSC MCQs / APSC Prelims Practice Questions (Date: 29/06/2026)

Q1.

With reference to the Greater Adjutant Stork, consider the following statements:

It is classified as Endangered in the IUCN Red List.
It is included in Appendix I of CITES.
Assam supports the world’s largest breeding population of this bird.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: The Greater Adjutant (Leptoptilos dubius) is listed as Endangered by the IUCN, included in CITES Appendix I, and Assam hosts the largest breeding population in the world.

Q2.

With reference to community-based wildlife conservation in India, consider the following statements:

Community participation can improve the protection of nesting habitats.
Women’s Self-Help Groups have played an important role in some conservation programmes.
Community participation alone can replace statutory wildlife protection laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation: Community participation complements but cannot replace legal protection under wildlife laws.

Q3.

With reference to Maximum Residue Limits (MRLs), consider the following statements:

They indicate the highest legally permissible level of pesticide residue in food.
They are determined on the basis of scientific risk assessment.
They are identical across all countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: MRLs are scientifically determined safety limits, but they vary from country to country.

Q4.

Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):

It is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
It functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
It regulates the quality standards of food products in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: All three statements are correct.

Q5.

Consider the following statements regarding the Tea Board of India:

It was constituted under the Tea Act, 1953.
It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
It is the statutory authority responsible for regulating food safety standards in tea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation: Food safety standards are regulated by FSSAI, while the Tea Board promotes and regulates the tea industry.

Q6.

With reference to the Pulse Polio Programme, consider the following statements:

It administers Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) to all children below five years.
OPV contains an inactivated virus.
India was declared Polio-Free by the World Health Organization in 2014.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation: OPV is a live attenuated vaccine, not an inactivated one.

Q7.

Which one of the following statements regarding the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) is correct?

A. It contains a live attenuated virus.

B. It is administered only during Pulse Polio campaigns.

C. It contains a killed poliovirus and is administered by injection.

D. It is no longer used after India became polio-free.

Answer: C

Explanation: IPV is an injectable vaccine containing killed poliovirus and forms part of the Universal Immunization Programme.

Q8.

Which of the following initiatives primarily aims to improve the quality of routine immunization coverage among children and pregnant women?

A. Ayushman Bharat

B. Mission Indradhanush

C. National AIDS Control Programme

D. POSHAN Abhiyaan

Answer: B

Explanation: Mission Indradhanush aims to ensure full immunization coverage for children and pregnant women.

Q9.

Consider the following statements:

Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is expressed per 100,000 live births.
Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) is expressed per 1,000 live births.
Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) measures deaths of children below five years of age.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: IMR measures deaths of children below one year, not under five years.

Q10.

The term “Neonatal Mortality Rate” refers to:

A. Deaths occurring within the first seven days after birth per 1,000 live births.

B. Deaths occurring within the first 28 completed days after birth per 1,000 live births.

C. Deaths occurring within one year after birth per 100,000 live births.

D. Deaths occurring during childbirth per 100,000 live births.

Answer: B

Explanation: Neonatal mortality refers to deaths during the first 28 days of life.

Q11.

Which one of the following schemes aims to improve the quality of care in labour rooms and maternity operation theatres?

A. Janani Suraksha Yojana

B. LaQshya

C. Mission Indradhanush

D. POSHAN Abhiyaan

Answer: B

Explanation: LaQshya focuses on improving the quality of intrapartum and immediate postpartum care.

Q12.

Consider the following pairs:

Programme	Primary Objective
1. Janani Suraksha Yojana	Promote institutional delivery
2. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram	Free maternal and newborn healthcare services
3. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan	Monthly antenatal care for pregnant women

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation: All three pairs are correctly matched.

Q13.

Consider the following statements:

Excessive pesticide residues in agricultural produce may lead to rejection of export consignments.
Integrated Pest Management (IPM) seeks to reduce dependence on chemical pesticides.
Organic farming completely eliminates the possibility of pest attacks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: Organic farming reduces chemical use but does not eliminate pest attacks.

Q14.

Which of the following best explains the importance of community participation in biodiversity conservation?

A. It reduces the need for scientific monitoring.

B. It completely eliminates human-wildlife conflict.

C. It creates local ownership and improves long-term conservation outcomes.

D. It replaces the need for protected areas.

Answer: C

Explanation: Community participation enhances stewardship and sustainability but does not replace scientific management or legal protection.

Q15.

Consider the following statements:

Boat clinics have been used in Assam to improve immunization coverage in riverine areas.
Improving maternal nutrition contributes to reducing neonatal mortality.
Community-led conservation initiatives can simultaneously promote biodiversity conservation and women’s empowerment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Assam’s boat clinics improve last-mile healthcare delivery, maternal nutrition is closely linked to neonatal survival, and the Hargila conservation model demonstrates how community participation—particularly by women—can strengthen both conservation and social empowerment.

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